And while I'm at it, I keep hearing "Aramaic" in NT studies, but I lean towards the idea that Hebrew was the dominant language of Jesus' time (as the majority of the DSS attest). I can dig up some things that make me suspect this, but as I was reading the Judas Wikipedia page I noticed yet another example of "Aramaic" with respect to the NT:
One of the most popular alternative explanations holds that Iscariot (ܣܟܪܝܘܛܐ 'Skaryota' in Syriac Aramaic, per the Peshitta text) may be a corruption of the Latin word sicarius, meaning "dagger man", which referred to a member of the Sicarii (סיקריים in Aramaic), a group of Jewish rebels who were known for committing acts of terrorism in the 40s and 50s AD by assassinating people in crowds using long knives hidden under their cloaks.
Okay, but can someone explain to me why, when the NT says Hebrew, it is often translated as "Aramaic"?
For example, Acts 1:19 says:
Everyone in Jerusalem heard about this, so they called that field in their language Akeldama, that is, Field of Blood.
I need to look into "Akeldama," but in the meantime, I see that the rest of Acts uses the word Ἑβραΐδι (Hebrew) to describe "their language" yet it is often translated as "Aramaic":
21:40 (NIV):
After receiving the commander's permission, Paul stood on the steps and motioned to the crowd. When they were all silent, he said to them in Aramaic:
ESV:
And when he had given him permission, Paul, standing on the steps, motioned with his hand to the people. And when there was a great hush, he addressed them in the Hebrew language, saying:
Greek:
προσεφώνησεν [he spoke] τῇ [in the] Ἑβραΐδι [Hebrew] διαλέκτῳ [language]
And again in Acts 22:2 (NIV):
When they heard him speak to them in Aramaic, they became very quiet.
ESV:
And when they heard that he was addressing them in the Hebrew language, they became even more quiet.
Greek:
Ἑβραΐδι [Hebrew] διαλέκτῳ [language]
And Acts 26:13 (NIV):
We all fell to the ground, and I heard a voice saying to me in Aramaic, 'Saul, Saul, why do you persecute me?'
ESV:
And when we had all fallen to the ground, I heard a voice saying to me in the Hebrew language, ‘Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting me?'
Greek:
Ἑβραΐδι [Hebrew] διαλέκτῳ [language]
And this word is also used in John, such as 5:2:
NIV:
Now there is in Jerusalem near the Sheep Gate a pool, which in Aramaic is called Bethesda ...
And here even the ESV has "Aramaic":
Now there is in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate a pool, in Aramaic called Bethesda ...
But there are other translations that say "Hebrew," such as the NAS:
Now there is in Jerusalem by the sheep gate a pool, which is called in Hebrew Bethesda ...
Greek:
Ἑβραϊστὶ [in Hebrew]
And the same thing is going on in John 19:17 and 19:20. Why is "Hebrew" being translated as "Aramaic"? And isn't the same thing going on in translations of Papias regarding Matthew, that he says "Hebrew" but people take it to mean "Aramaic"? Why is "Hebrew" understood to mean "Aramaic"?
And Rev. 9:11 and 16:16 appear to use the same word and it is always translated as "Hebrew."
https://biblehub.com/revelation/9-11.htm
https://biblehub.com/revelation/16-16.htm
https://biblehub.com/greek/1447.htm
You know in spite of all you gained, you still have to stand out in the pouring rain.