I read:
(From gnosis to Christianity, p. 179)
Can you say me which is precisely the passage of AoI referred by Magne in this point, that who reads "against his son"?
This text [the translation as ''against his son''] results from a correction of Dillmann adopted by Charles, ***** in the place of ****** of manuscript: “will stretch by the hand of the his son”.
...would be corrected by Charles with this translation:Et princeps mundi illius propter filium ejus extendet manus suas in eum et suspendent illum in ligno, et occidet eum nesciens qui sit.
“will stretch out his hand against his son”.
Only the Slavonic has "his son." The Ethiopic has "the son."
thanks, Ben.Ben C. Smith wrote: ↑Tue Nov 06, 2018 7:25 amOnly the Slavonic has "his son." The Ethiopic has "the son."
But the Slavonic also has "on account of," which is an obvious mistranslation or mistake. I imagine somebody has conjecturally restored "on account of his son" to "against his son."
if the translation if the following:Et princeps mundi illius propter filium ejus extendet manus suas in eum et suspendent illum in ligno, et occidet eum nesciens qui sit.
the problem is that 'of him', being 'eius' in the Latin, should allude to another person who is not the same Prince, because otherwise there would be 'propter filium suum' (in the place of 'propter filium eius').And the Prince of that world by the son of him stretch out his hand ...
Et princeps mundi illius propter filium ejus extendet manus suas in eum et suspendent illum in ligno, et occidet eum nesciens qui sit.
No, eius is a pronoun which simply means "of him," and may refer back to any relevant singular masculine antecedent. Suum is a pronominal adjective (in the masculine accusative) which means "his" and which, in its pronominal capacity, may also refer back to any relevant singular masculine antecedent. There is no difference between the two so far as range of antecedents is concerned: both most naturally refer back to princeps.Giuseppe wrote: ↑Tue Nov 06, 2018 11:23 am Ben, excuse me but I would have a question about the correct translation from this Latin phrase:
if the translation if the following:Et princeps mundi illius propter filium ejus extendet manus suas in eum et suspendent illum in ligno, et occidet eum nesciens qui sit.the problem is that 'of him', being 'eius' in the Latin, should allude to another person who is not the same Prince, because otherwise there would be 'propter filium suum' (in the place of 'propter filium eius').And the Prince of that world by the son of him stretch out his hand ...
Antecedents are not automatic, but yes: eius and suum would both most likely point back to princeps.Can you secure me that in Latin (at least in the Latin used by this translator) there is no difference between 'suum' and 'eius' in reference to 'filium' ? In other words, that in this phrase:
Et princeps mundi illius propter filium ejus extendet manus suas in eum et suspendent illum in ligno, et occidet eum nesciens qui sit.
'eius' refers to the 'princeps mundi illius' and not to another entity.
Thank you in advance for the disturb.