I did have the impression that trusted slaves could and did travel, but I don’t think they could travel where-ever they wished without the permission of their masters, which was the point I was making. A Christian slave in Rome in 80 CE could not just travel to Palestine if the mood took them.andrewcriddle wrote: It was actually quite common for trusted slaves to be sent abroad by their masters in order to carry out tasks for their master. …
Andrew Criddle
The paper has a small sample and it is discussing movement for work and includes re-settlement. It also states it findings must “remain tentative” (first sentence last paragraph). It seems likely that poor free people would move to where there was more work, away from areas where work had become scarce to areas being developed. Claire Holleran points out this movement was largely regional and it is not clear if the journey was made in stages or not. This does not mean that large numbers could travel where they wanted across the Roman Empire for the purpose of chatting with people which is the situation that Rakovsky was imagining.andrewcriddle wrote:Labour Mobility in the Roman World may be of interest. (It is primarily about mine workers but discusses broader issues).spin wrote:Slaves may have been mobile, people under legal bans and foreigners also, but on what evidence would you generalize to city dwellers as a whole?andrewcriddle wrote:In the early Roman Empire city dwellers were probably quite mobile.
Andrew Criddle
I am glad you understand this.rakovsky wrote:You ask:That would make sense.My point was that a woman in the past would have a greater chance of dying in adulthood than a Muslim scholar of the Middle Ages. Do you understand that women as adults had a greater chance of dying because of child-birth than adult men?
I have this idea that the first pregnancy has a higher likelihood of the death of the mother than later ones and women who give birth after the age of 40 are more likely to die than younger women.
(While these claims are possible I don’t think the data is there for this claim. How do we know how many children died before 1841? How do we know that half of those who were 17 in 1841 reached 64 in 1888 when the censuses were in 1881 and 1891? It reads that the author got his information from the Human Mortality Database (http://www.mortality.org/cgi-bin/hmd/co ... BR&level=2) but the information only starts in 1922. There is no information on deaths between 1842 and 1922.)rakovsky wrote:Hello, Michael. My question is not whether you believe you understand what life expectancy means, but whether you understand the reasons why statisticians say that life expectancy that factors in infant mortality rates is very misleading.Michael BG wrote: I did inform you that I did understand about life expectancy and it was implied in the original comment.
I pointed out a life expectancy average of 30 and 35.
I pointed out that with this average life expectancy few people would live past the age of 54 (reached in 50 CE).''
When one says that few out of all people live past 54 if the life expectancy is 30, then that statement is misleading, because it doesn't distinguish between people who reach adult hood and those who don't. Judeans who reached adulthood and knew Mary's background would have a much longer lifespan that all people, which would include children who didn't.
I told you that medieval Islamic scholars live to 80, and you didn't like that statistic because we are talking about average women.
Same thing here. We are not talking about all life expectancy, but life expectancy for adults, which is drastically different because of the infant mortality factor.
You are underfactoring infant mortality and creating very high mortality of teenagers, who tend to be healthier than other ages.With an average age of 35 and expecting half of people to die at 12 the rest would all die at 47. We could have a quarter die at 6, a quarter die at 15, a quarter die at 47 and a quarter die at 72. Therefore most (3 out of 4) people would die in this example before they were 54.
See the BBC article:
For example, if we consult wonderful resources such as the Human Mortality Database, we find that back in 1841 (the first year we have data for), 31% of children born in England and Wales died before they were 16, but if you did survive there was nearly a 50% chance of reaching 64.
http://www.bbc.com/future/story/2012041 ... -and-death
It appears to me that you don’t understand what you think I don’t understand.
My example of deaths at 6, 15, 47 and 72 was an example which clearly shows that 2 people died before the average age of 35 and 2 died afterwards.
With a lower infant mobility the number of people who exceed the average age greatly will be small.
Perhaps another example will help. One dies at 1, one dies at 10, one dies at 20, one dies at 30, one dies at 40, one dies at 50, one dies at 60 and the last one dies at 69, average age 35. For those who didn’t die before 21 the average age was 49.8. In this example most people didn’t make it to 54 only 2 did and the last one if born in 4 BCE died in 65 CE. This is an example. However it shows that most people of this generation would be dead 54 years after their birth and as time goes by fewer people will be alive, which was my original point. Do you now understand?
Do you accept that someone born in the USA who was 20 in 2000 would be expected to live longer than someone who was 20 in 1800?
Do you accept that someone who was 20 in 16 CE in Judea or Galilee would be expected to live fewer years than someone born in the USA and who was 20 in 1800?
I was saying that with a life expectancy of 35 the same number of people died before 35 as afterwards. Therefore the majority of people born in 4 BCE would be dead by 50CE. Mathematically as soon as more than half the people born in 4 BCE were dead a majority (or most) would be dead. Fewer people would live to over the age of 54 than made it to 35. Even today fewer people make it to 54 than 35. The only way this would not be true would be if no-one died aged between 36 and 54. Do you now understand? I then went on to write that because of the war 66-70 even fewer people would be alive in 70 CE than in 50 CE. Do you think no people born in 4 BCE would have died between 66 and 70 CE?rakovsky wrote: Ben Radford of Skeptical Inquirer science magazine writes:This means that those living the longest reached the same age. It does not mean as many people reached those advanced ages. For example a person might reach 100 at any time in history, but the number who did was much fewer 200 years ago than today.Human Lifespans Nearly Constant for 2,000 Years
The fact is that the maximum human lifespan — a concept often confused with "life expectancy" — has remained more or less the same for thousands of years. The idea that our ancestors routinely died young (say, at age 40) has no basis in scientific fact.
rakovsky wrote:It seems to me that you are implying that Judeans were dying en masse at 30-54 years old when you say: "few people would live past the age of 54 "
I did suggest that during the war 132-35 Jews died en masse and the majority of those in Judea who didn’t die were enslaved and removed from Judea.