Why did Marcion adopt the gospel of Luke?

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maryhelena
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Re: Why did Marcion adopt the gospel of Luke?

Post by maryhelena »

Michael BG wrote:
<snip>
And finally I am left disagreeing with Klinghardt when he concludes “this model provides a solution of the contentious issues of the present debate”.
I'm sure that there are many instances where Klinghardt can be called out by critics - as all proposed solutions to the synoptic problem have been. From my perspective, from reading the Klinghardt article, he has offered an avenue for further research by his inclusion of the gospel of Marcion in the synoptic debate.

While Klinghardt' Marcion scenario places Marcion' gospel prior to gLuke that is not it's only significance - it's the historical questions that arise. Questions dealing directly with Marcion and the NT figure of Paul:

If Marcion had gMark or a proto-Mark then dating gMark becomes problematic if Marcion is dated later. (85 - 160 c.e. Wikipedia) The usual dating of gMark is 66-70 c.e. (Wikipedia). James Crossley dating gMark earlier, late 30s early 40s. Moving gospel writing to coincide with a late Marcion date puts 70 plus years between the consensus dating for NT Paul (dead 67 c.e. re Wikipedia) and the gospel writing. The usual dating has gospel writing soon after the death of the NT Paul.

A solution would be to jettison the consensus dating for the NT Paul and have him a contemporary of Marcion. Thus raising questions regarding the relationship between Paul and Marcion....and overlooking the dating issues surrounding gMark.

At one time I was of the opinion that gMark was late - a sort of condensed Readers Digest version of the gospel story. I thought perhaps an urLuke was earlier than Mark. However, the more I used the gospel story itself - to watch for developments in the story rather than how different gospel writers used the stories within that story - I now view gMark as the earliest of the synoptic gospels. Yes, one can say that gMark has been added to - and I grant that as I believe it has been added too - as have the other gospels.

Stories can be added to make a gospel appear older than it is - or stories could be added to make the gospel appear to reflect a later time period.

For instance: gMark says Bethsaida was a village - that would place gMark's story prior to or around 30 c.e. when Bethsaida was renamed Bethsaida-Julius and was designated a city.(The 34th year coin of Philip the Tetrarch being used to support dating for this event.) gMark says Herodias was married to Philip prior to her marriage to Herod/Antipas. Slavonic Josephus tells us this marriage to Herod took place on the death of Philip. Philip died, re Josephus, around 34 c.e. Josephus says Herod/Antipas was removed around 36/37 c.e. So a cut off date for gMark's Herodias and JtB story. However, there is no start date. gMark's Jesus figure was active prior to 30 c.e. How many years prior to 30 c.e. - gMark does not indicate. gMark's Jesus figure could just as easily be 50 years old rather than 30 years old when crucified.

1) the mention of Bethsaida as a village suggests a pre 30 c.e. Markan Jesus figure. This Jesus figure is crucified under Pilate. Dating Pilate is ambiguous - anything from 19 c.e. to 37 c.e. The Acts of Pilate, re Eusebius, has the Acts of Pilate story of a crucifixion in the 7th year of Tiberius. i.e. a crucifixion prior to 30 c.e. and the renaming of Bethsaida and it's upgrading to the status of a city.

2) while the mention of Herodias/Philip/Herod Antipas suggests a post 34 c.e. (post death of Philip) crucifixion scenario - in view of the Bethsaida reference - it's more likely that the Herodias/Philip/Herod Antipas story was a later addition to gMark. A later addition designed to move forward the development of the Jesus story away from any connection to the Acts of Pilate and it's 7th year of Tiberius crucifixion story.

Anyway, that's about how I approach the synoptic problem...

Also, of course, we don't have the exact words of any gospel.
  • On “Knowing” the Original Words of the NT

    http://ehrmanblog.org/on-knowing-the-or ... of-the-nt/

    I have been discussing the question of whether we can know that we have reconstructed the original text of the New Testament at every point – or even every important point. To me the answer is self-evidently, No, of course not.
More reason, methinks, to concentrate on the gospel story itself and recognize the developments within the various gospels. That way, perhaps, a possible order for the synoptic gospels might be obtained.

Bottom line, for me, is that Marcion linked to gMark places Marcion early in the developing gospel story. The question of the relationship between Marcion and Paul remains. One could either place them both pre 70 or post 93/94 c.e. Antiquities. Or one could recognize two developments in early Christianity and have one early and one late. With the Marcion connection to gMark, re Klinghardt, on the table and the possibility that gMark can be dated early - then it's the NT Paul that is to be dated late. Reverse the order - turn the table - and a way out of this synoptic problem might present itself....
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Re: Why did Marcion adopt the gospel of Luke?

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maryhelena wrote:A solution would be to jettison the consensus dating for the NT Paul and have him a contemporary of Marcion.
Yes!! Why isn't anyone talking about this?

There is internal evidence for dating at least one letter of Paul pre-70 (on a "real letter" hermeneutic)... 1 Corinthians. Maybe Romans and 1 Thessalonians as well.

There is patristic 'evidence' that Paul and Peter both died because of Nero. Many disbelieve the tradition, everyone uses the date--a typical disconnect to find in NT studies.

The "pastoral" letter of 1 Timothy has been interpreted as referring to the "antitheses" (contradictions) of so-called "gnosis" (knowledge) ... i.e., Marcion.

The stylometric analysis--not just mine, but that of the only two exhaustive monographs on the subject that have been published at a high level of mathematical rigor--have found nothing that could separate 1 Timothy or 2 Timothy from the other, sufficiently-long non-pastoral letters of Paul in the New Testament. This is not a normal result, if they actually came from different authors.

Justin Martyr implies that Marcion is still around, making it very stretched (in biological terms) to imagine that Marcion was active before 70 AD.

So it sounds crazy, but ... what if Paul did not die before 70 AD and wrote a letter after 70 AD, as well as writing beforehand? It's going to be very harshly evaluated due to being against everything we've ever been told about Paul and his timeline... but it does have an argument in its favor.

(If "Acts" came very late and had no unmediated access to historical information on Paul, then it may be aware only of the -legend- of Paul's death around the time of Nero. Or it could even be part of an apologetic scheme to separate Paul from Marcion, chronologically.)

Can we start thinking of Marcion not as some late upstart... but rather as a person who attempted to carry on the mission of Paul, being one of his disciples or former disciples? The phenomenon in general is widely known in the history of religious movements (immediate successor of "founder"), and it's almost conspicuous in its absence in the case of Paul (super charismatic and prodigious guy, tons of contacts and authority, *poof* after death). And who fits the description better than a Paul-o-phile like Marcion?
Thus raising questions regarding the relationship between Paul and Marcion....and overlooking the dating issues surrounding gMark.
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Re: Why did Marcion adopt the gospel of Luke?

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The stylometric analysis--not just mine, but that of the only two exhaustive monographs on the subject that have been published at a high level of mathematical rigor--have found nothing that could separate 1 Timothy or 2 Timothy from the other, sufficiently-long non-pastoral letters of Paul in the New Testament. This is not a normal result, if they actually came from different authors.
Maybe the author of the letters to Timothy took great pain into imitating Paul's style and using his vocabulary.

Cordially, Bernard
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Re: Why did Marcion adopt the gospel of Luke?

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Peter Kirby wrote:
maryhelena wrote:A solution would be to jettison the consensus dating for the NT Paul and have him a contemporary of Marcion.
Yes!! Why isn't anyone talking about this?

There is internal evidence for dating at least one letter of Paul pre-70 (on a "real letter" hermeneutic)... 1 Corinthians. Maybe Romans and 1 Thessalonians as well.

There is patristic 'evidence' that Paul and Peter both died because of Nero. Many disbelieve the tradition, everyone uses the date--a typical disconnect to find in NT studies.

The "pastoral" letter of 1 Timothy has been interpreted as referring to the "antitheses" (contradictions) of so-called "gnosis" (knowledge) ... i.e., Marcion.

The stylometric analysis--not just mine, but that of the only two exhaustive monographs on the subject that have been published at a high level of mathematical rigor--have found nothing that could separate 1 Timothy or 2 Timothy from the other, sufficiently-long non-pastoral letters of Paul in the New Testament. This is not a normal result, if they actually came from different authors.

Justin Martyr implies that Marcion is still around, making it very stretched (in biological terms) to imagine that Marcion was active before 70 AD.

So it sounds crazy, but ... what if Paul did not die before 70 AD and wrote a letter after 70 AD, as well as writing beforehand? It's going to be very harshly evaluated due to being against everything we've ever been told about Paul... but it does have an argument in its favor.

Maybe at the end of the day the writings of Marcion and Paul became mixed up? As I view it, it's two developments in early christianity not necessarily two people by the names of Marcion and Paul. People of course, writing does not fall out of thin air.....But whoever they were, both movements, the Marcionite and the Pauline, were at some stage 'friends' until something caused the parting of the way. The result being that writings from the earlier movement would become the tradition, the heritage, of the movement that gained the ascendancy. Once the ascendancy movement took off then the early writings, by 'Marcion', would simply be known as part of the Pauline movement. And, since the Marconite movement would be earlier, the later writings by the Pauline movement would retain a linkage, and thus a dating, to the earlier Marcionism dating....

Well, something like that....
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Re: Why did Marcion adopt the gospel of Luke?

Post by Peter Kirby »

Bernard Muller wrote:
The stylometric analysis--not just mine, but that of the only two exhaustive monographs on the subject that have been published at a high level of mathematical rigor--have found nothing that could separate 1 Timothy or 2 Timothy from the other, sufficiently-long non-pastoral letters of Paul in the New Testament. This is not a normal result, if they actually came from different authors.
Maybe the author of the letters to Timothy took great pain into imitating Paul's style and using his vocabulary.

Cordially, Bernard
Or maybe it's by Paul. The odds are in favor of it being by Paul, on the basis of the stylometric analysis, but yes, most of the rest of the odds are going to be occupied by such ways to explain an unlikely event, such as this would be, in the light of the analysis. You have free will and you can dismiss the result completely, using this possibility.

PS -- The other statistical analyses used many factors other than the lexical. My analysis was discriminating on very common word frequency, in a rather precise way, not "vocabulary." (From the armchair, the idea that they would even know -how- or -that- they would have to fool such metrics seems incredible.)

Vocabulary itself, the bulk of which involves uncommon words, turns out to be horrible at discriminating authorship. Nobody seriously uses it anymore.
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maryhelena
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Re: Why did Marcion adopt the gospel of Luke?

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Peter Kirby wrote:
<snip>
Can we start thinking of Marcion not as some late upstart... but rather as a person who attempted to carry on the mission of Paul, being one of his disciples or former disciples? The phenomenon in general is widely known in the history of religious movements (immediate successor of "founder"), and it's almost conspicuous in its absence in the case of Paul (super charismatic and prodigious guy, tons of contacts and authority, *poof* after death). And who fits the description better than a Paul-o-phile like Marcion?
Thus raising questions regarding the relationship between Paul and Marcion....and overlooking the dating issues surrounding gMark.
Yep, but reverse the order - first Marcion then Paul..... ;)

Acts is not history.....Paul has been backdated to take the place of Marcion....
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Re: Why did Marcion adopt the gospel of Luke?

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maryhelena wrote:Yep, but reverse the order - first Marcion then Paul..... ;)
...
maryhelena wrote:Acts is not history.....
Right.
maryhelena wrote:Paul has been backdated to take the place of Marcion....
That's one idea, but it contradicts the "real letter" hermeneutic, which implies that the author's name is Paul. And the "fake letter" interpretation hasn't had very good showing. Actually, I'm not even sure that's close to being the worst difficulty here...
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Re: Why did Marcion adopt the gospel of Luke?

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Peter Kirby wrote:
maryhelena wrote:Yep, but reverse the order - first Marcion then Paul..... ;)
...
maryhelena wrote:Acts is not history.....
No, it isn't.
maryhelena wrote:Paul has been backdated to take the place of Marcion....
That's one idea, but it contradicts the "real letter" hermeneutic, which implies that the author's name is Paul. And the "fake letter" interpretation hasn't had very good showing.
Sure, Paul wrote letters - the question is the dating....

That Acts has backdated Paul to fit it's pseudo-history does not change a later dating for the Pauline writings...i.e. post 70 c.e. or later.

Dating Marcion in relationship to dating gMark early is to question the idea that the gospel writing was post Paul. Marcion and the gospel story preceded Paul - not something that some mythicists would like to hear..... ;)
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Re: Why did Marcion adopt the gospel of Luke?

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maryhelena wrote:Sure, Paul wrote letters - the question is the dating....

That Acts has backdated Paul to fit it's pseudo-history does not change a later dating for the Pauline writings...i.e. post 70 c.e. or later.

Dating Marcion in relationship to dating gMark early is to question the idea that the gospel writing was post Paul. Marcion and the gospel story preceded Paul - not something that some mythicists would like to hear..... ;)
Oh but I'm used to hearing things that represent at best only one possible configuration of the manifold possibilities that are put forward based on personal whim.

I've even gotten used to the names who do nothing but.
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Re: Why did Marcion adopt the gospel of Luke?

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Peter Kirby wrote:The stylometric analysis--not just mine, but that of the only two exhaustive monographs on the subject that have been published at a high level of mathematical rigor--have found nothing that could separate 1 Timothy or 2 Timothy from the other, sufficiently-long non-pastoral letters of Paul in the New Testament. This is not a normal result, if they actually came from different authors.
What are those two monographs, if you would?

Also, what if all 13 of the canonical Pauline letters are authentic, but just riddled with interpolations?

Ben.
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