Was OT originally in Greek?

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lpetrich
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

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Ethan wrote: Sat Mar 03, 2018 10:41 am I am also an opponent of PIE [Proto-Indo-European] , Every time i look up PIE Etymology of any words, no mention of Hebrew , Why is Hebrew not classified as a PIE language, the language was used in Europe, ...
It is not because it is very very different.

The Indo-European family was named that because a sizable number of languages in India and Europe belong to it, not *every* language. Mainstream linguists consider several languages of Europe and India and in between to be non-Indo-European, like Basque, Finnish, Hungarian, Turkish, and Tamil.
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

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Ethan wrote: Sat Mar 03, 2018 10:41 am I am also an opponent of PIE [Proto-Indo-European] , Every time i look up PIE Etymology of any words, no mention of Hebrew , Why is Hebrew not classified as a PIE language, the language was used in Europe....
Because the relationship between language and geography is not direct, of course. One may as well ask why Spanish and Mixtecan are not classified as part of the same language family; after all, they are both spoken in Mexico....

Peoples migrate, you know. And they usually take their languages with them.
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

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Ben C. Smith wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 1:04 pm
Ethan wrote: Sat Mar 03, 2018 10:41 am I am also an opponent of PIE [Proto-Indo-European] , Every time i look up PIE Etymology of any words, no mention of Hebrew , Why is Hebrew not classified as a PIE language, the language was used in Europe....
Because the relationship between language and geography is not direct, of course. One may as well ask why Spanish and Mixtecan are not classified as part of the same language family; after all, they are both spoken in Mexico....

Peoples migrate, you know. And they usually take their languages with them.
Phoenicians migrated too Spain, founding the earliest cities in Europe, such as Cadiz and the language they spoke naturally evolved and merged
with Latin , but Hebrew as not evolved, it's stays the same . compare English too Old English.

The letter ⟨Y⟩ is a grammatical conjunction with the meaning "and" in Spanish.
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https://vivliothikiagiasmatos.files.wordpress.com/2012/01/joseph-yahuda-hebrew-is-greek.pdf
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

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Ethan wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 1:19 pm
Ben C. Smith wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 1:04 pm
Ethan wrote: Sat Mar 03, 2018 10:41 am I am also an opponent of PIE [Proto-Indo-European] , Every time i look up PIE Etymology of any words, no mention of Hebrew , Why is Hebrew not classified as a PIE language, the language was used in Europe....
Because the relationship between language and geography is not direct, of course. One may as well ask why Spanish and Mixtecan are not classified as part of the same language family; after all, they are both spoken in Mexico....

Peoples migrate, you know. And they usually take their languages with them.
Phoenicians migrated too Spain, founding the earliest cities in Europe, such as Cadiz and the language they spoke naturally evolved and merged
with Latin , but Hebrew as not evolved, it's stays the same . compare English too Old English.

The letter ⟨Y⟩ is a grammatical conjunction with the meaning "and" in Spanish.
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Do you classify Spanish and Mixtecan together, too?
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

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Ben C. Smith wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 1:22 pm Do you classify Spanish and Mixtecan together, too?
You could use the same allusion with Dog breeds, Breed an American Bulldog with a British Bulldog , how should the
end result be classified.

Spanish language is classified as "Italic", but it's conjunctions and articles, Y, el, il, le, la, lo, los, las, un, una, unos, unas
are not from Latin, where do they come from?
https://vivliothikiagiasmatos.files.wordpress.com/2012/01/joseph-yahuda-hebrew-is-greek.pdf
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

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Ethan wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 1:47 pmSpanish language is classified as "Italic", but it's conjunctions and articles, Y, el, il, le, la, lo, los, las, un, una, unos, unas
are not from Latin, where do they come from?
Those are all from Latin (even probably "il," which is not, however, Spanish). "Y" comes from et (just like Italian and Portuguese "e," Catalan "i," and French "et"), "el" from ille, "la" from illa, "uno" from unus, "una" from una, and so on, obviously.
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

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Also, how stubborn do you have to be not to acknowledge that Spanish "uno" and "una" come from Latin unus and una?? I mean, WOW.
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

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Ben C. Smith wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 1:58 pm
Ethan wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 1:47 pmSpanish language is classified as "Italic", but it's conjunctions and articles, Y, el, il, le, la, lo, los, las, un, una, unos, unas
are not from Latin, where do they come from?
Those are all from Latin. "Y" comes from et (just like Italian and Portuguese "e," Catalan "i," and French "et"), "el" from ille, "la" from illa, "uno" from unus/a/um, and so on, obviously.
Latin does not use definite or indefinite articles.

ו : Y
מה, מי, מאה : τίνα, ένα, τίνος , μια, un . una , unos, unas,

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Article_(grammar)
Why is Latin blank?
https://vivliothikiagiasmatos.files.wordpress.com/2012/01/joseph-yahuda-hebrew-is-greek.pdf
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

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Ethan wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 2:13 pm
Ben C. Smith wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 1:58 pm
Ethan wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 1:47 pmSpanish language is classified as "Italic", but it's conjunctions and articles, Y, el, il, le, la, lo, los, las, un, una, unos, unas
are not from Latin, where do they come from?
Those are all from Latin. "Y" comes from et (just like Italian and Portuguese "e," Catalan "i," and French "et"), "el" from ille, "la" from illa, "uno" from unus/a/um, and so on, obviously.
Latin does not use definite or indefinite articles.
Not formally, no. But it used determiners (like illa) in a similar function.
מה, מי, מאה : τίνα, ένα, τίνος , μια, un . una , unos, unas,
Riiiight. Greek μια turned into Spanish una, and the Latin una just sat there looking lonely.

I learned Spanish as a youth because I lived in Mexico for nine years. Once I started taking Latin classes, it was incredible how much already knowing Spanish helped me with Latin. Both languages, for example, switch out the thematic vowels (a for e or e for a) to form the subjunctive mood from the indicative (example: Spanish "comes" = "you eat," indicative; Spanish "comas" = "you should eat," subjunctive). Having already mastered this little trick in Spanish, doing it in Latin was obvious and natural.

Also, I knew as soon as my professor brought out the demonstratives (illa and its ilk) that they were the origins of the Spanish definite articles (like "la"), before ever consulting an etymological work on the topic. It was obvious. Still is.
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Re: Was OT originally in Greek?

Post by Ethan »

Ben C. Smith wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 2:21 pm
Ethan wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 2:13 pm
Ben C. Smith wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 1:58 pm
Ethan wrote: Wed Jun 13, 2018 1:47 pmSpanish language is classified as "Italic", but it's conjunctions and articles, Y, el, il, le, la, lo, los, las, un, una, unos, unas
are not from Latin, where do they come from?
Those are all from Latin. "Y" comes from et (just like Italian and Portuguese "e," Catalan "i," and French "et"), "el" from ille, "la" from illa, "uno" from unus/a/um, and so on, obviously.
Latin does not use definite or indefinite articles.
Not formally, no. But it used determiners (like illa) in a similar function.
מה, מי, מאה : τίνα, ένα, τίνος , μια, un . una , unos, unas,
Riiiight. Greek μια turned into Spanish una, and the Latin una just sat there looking lonely.

I learned Spanish as a youth because I lived in Mexico for nine years. Once I started taking Latin classes, it was incredible how much already knowing Spanish helped me with Latin. Both languages, for example, switch out the thematic vowels (a for e or e for a) to form the subjunctive mood from the indicative (example: Spanish "comes" = "you eat," indicative; Spanish "comas" = "you should eat," subjunctive). Having already mastered this little trick in Spanish, doing it in Latin was obvious and natural.

Also, I knew as soon as my professor brought out the demonstratives (illa and its ilk) that they were the origins of the Spanish definite articles (like "la"), before ever consulting an etymological work on the topic. It was obvious. Still is.
2 Kings 18:19 - כה־אמר המלך הגדול
Hebrew Ce Amr E Mlk E Gdul
Greek Tade Legei O Basileus O Megas
Spanish Asi Dice El Rey El Grande
Latin Haec Dicit - Rex - Magnus

https://vivliothikiagiasmatos.files.wordpress.com/2012/01/joseph-yahuda-hebrew-is-greek.pdf
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