A Breakthrough in My Ishu Theory

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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billd89
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Re: Ishu = Man

Post by billd89 »

Ishu = Anthropos?

I don't know where the Anthropos Doctrine originates, but there are Anthropos elements in the Hermetica (which I suppose originates at least c.75 BC, even if the surviving material is c.300 AD). 'Son of Man' is a big theme in Ezekiel (200 BC, of older material?). As for Philo, the Aletheian Anthropos (A. A.) is the holy man made after God's Image, divinized. Philo details that rather extensively - I suppose it must have been a vibrant subculture, and at least 3-4 generations older than Philo (c.150-100 BC) but perhaps far older.

Moses doesn't see 'Man' in the Burning-Bush - he sees a psychedelic vision (abstraction) which may then be interpreted. Mandrake wine, anyone?

The thorn tree or bush of Sopdu and Yahweh, however, will hardly be anything else than a symbol of the sun's rays penetrating and illuminating the air or an image of the sun's tuft of rays. That is why the thorn-bush in Exodus 3 is 'fiery' without being consumed by fire.


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Secret Alias
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Re: A Breakthrough in My Ishu Theory

Post by Secret Alias »

No it's Israelite. God is man. Man is God. Moses = the Name/His Name (Hebrew/Aramaic). Moses comes down the mountain and he's divine. Moses is called the Man of God or God Man ish ha'Elohim because he's a fully divinized human being https://books.google.com/books?id=VC0Ev ... im&f=false. The story of Israel (a man seeing God according to Philo, the upright yasharim according to Jewish tradition which requires the Samaritan ignoring the difference between sin and shin) is the story of the restoration or the attainment of the divinity of Adam from the beginning. The difference between the Christian Ishu and Moses is that the latter became divinized by the former and apparently took issue with some of the commandments made in his name.
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Jax
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Re: A Breakthrough in My Ishu Theory

Post by Jax »

And Anthropos is part of the NS. A later addition but deemed important by later XCy writers.
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Jax
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Re: A Breakthrough in My Ishu Theory

Post by Jax »

"and everyone will see the son of man descending from the heavens".

How is this rendered in the earliest texts?
Secret Alias
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Re: A Breakthrough in My Ishu Theory

Post by Secret Alias »

Son of Man isn't a Samaritan thing as far as I've seen. So it isn't as original. I think it's an Aramaism.
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Re: A Breakthrough in My Ishu Theory

Post by Secret Alias »

And the interchangeable use of fire and man works the other way too in Aramaic. From the Targum of Song

אישה‬‎, n. f. fire

TgSong 1:4; 2:5; 5:1; 6:2; 8:6

[DNWSI 121–122 (ʾš #2, ʾšh #2); LBA 54 (‮אשה‬‎); DQA 26 (‮אשה‬‎); DJPA 54; GTO 12; DJBA 126; DSA 67 (‮אש‬‎); DCPA 14; SL 108; MD 357 (ʿšata).]
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Ken Olson
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Re: A Breakthrough in My Ishu Theory

Post by Ken Olson »

Jax wrote: Thu Jan 06, 2022 12:36 pm
Secret Alias wrote: Thu Jan 06, 2022 12:25 pm
why are Justin and Origen bothering to argue that it is indeed the name for IC in the first place"?
They aren't 'arguing.' Read the passage in Origen. If he was arguing it might have been picked up by scholars. He's just spelling out a Hebrew sentence (mostly to show he can read Hebrew because Africanus was fluent in many languages). Justin is just explaining - not arguing - what Christ's name meant. He says it means two different things in Greek and Hebrew.
Ok, 'arguing' isn't perhaps the right way of saying it but my point is, why would they need mention it in the first place? I mean if it was so obvious and known to everyone there would need be no reason to belabor the point. Would there?
No, because the points you take Origen and Justin to be making have little to do with the points they are actually trying to make in the texts cited.

Origen does not 'mention it in the first place'. He is not writing about the name Jesus nor about any concept of the Messiah, Logos, Second God, or related concept. He is arguing, against Julius Africanus, that the so-called additions to Daniel which are known in the Greek but not the Hebrew text, are not spurious, as Africanus took them to be, and argues that the translators may have chosen Greek words that had some analogical similarity to the Hebrew text rather than translating the Hebrew directly in all cases. Nothing christological about it.
12. I had nearly forgotten an additional remark I have to make about the prino-prisein and schino-schisein difficulty; that is, that in our Scriptures there are many etymological fancies, so to call them, which in the Hebrew are perfectly suitable, but not in the Greek. It need not surprise us, then, if the translators of the History of Susanna contrived it so that they found out some Greek words, derived from the same root, which either corresponded exactly to the Hebrew form (though this I hardly think possible), or presented some analogy to it. Here is an instance of this in our Scripture. When the woman was made by God from the rib of the man, Adam says, She shall be called woman, because she was taken out of her husband. Now the Jews say that the woman was called Essa, and that taken is a translation of this word as is evident from chos isouoth essa, which means, I have taken the cup of salvation; and that is means man, as we see from Hesre aïs, which is, Blessed is the man. According to the Jews, then, is is man, and essa, woman, because she was taken out of her husband (is). It need not then surprise us if some interpreters of the Hebrew Susanna, which had been concealed among them at a very remote date, and had been preserved only by the more learned and honest, should have either given the Hebrew word for word, or hit upon some analogy to the Hebrew forms, that the Greeks might be able to follow them. For in many other passages we can find traces of this kind of contrivance on the part of the translators, which I noticed when I was collating the various editions (Origen, Letter to Africanus).
https://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0414.htm

In chapter 33 of the First Apology, Justin is discussing the birth narratives in Matthew and Luke and explaining the meaning of Matthew 1.21 (the first part of which is paralleled in Luke 1.31), "She will bear a son, and you are to name him Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.' He takes the verse to be claiming that the name Jesus contains the meaning that he will save (someone), and tries to explain how that is so:
And hear again how Isaiah in express words foretold that He should be born of a virgin; for he spoke thus: Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bring forth a son, and they shall say for His name, 'God with us.' Isaiah 7:14 For things which were incredible and seemed impossible with men, these God predicted by the Spirit of prophecy as about to come to pass, in order that, when they came to pass, there might be no unbelief, but faith, because of their prediction. But lest some, not understanding the prophecy now cited, should charge us with the very things we have been laying to the charge of the poets who say that Jupiter went in to women through lust, let us try to explain the words. This, then, Behold, a virgin shall conceive, signifies that a virgin should conceive without intercourse. For if she had had intercourse with any one whatever, she was no longer a virgin; but the power of God having come upon the virgin, overshadowed her, and caused her while yet a virgin to conceive. And the angel of God who was sent to the same virgin at that time brought her good news, saying, Behold, you shall conceive of the Holy Ghost, and shall bear a Son, and He shall be called the Son of the Highest, and you shall call His name Jesus; for He shall save His people from their sins, Luke 1:32; Matthew 1:21 — as they who have recorded all that concerns our Saviour Jesus Christ have taught, whom we believed, since by Isaiah also, whom we have now adduced, the Spirit of prophecy declared that He should be born as we intimated before. It is wrong, therefore, to understand the Spirit and the power of God as anything else than the Word, who is also the first-born of God, as the foresaid prophet Moses declared; and it was this which, when it came upon the virgin and overshadowed her, caused her to conceive, not by intercourse, but by power. And the name Jesus in the Hebrew language means Σωτήρ (Saviour) in the Greek tongue. Wherefore, too, the angel said to the virgin, You shall call His name Jesus, for He shall save His people from their sins. And that the prophets are inspired by no other than the Divine Word, even you, as I fancy, will grant. (Justin, First Apology, 33)
https://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0126.htm

Marcovich's case is based on his claim that there is a lacuna in the text, which, if I am understanding this correctly, he conjecturally emends by adding the word ἄνθρωπος ('man'), which is not found in the manuscripts.

Marcovich - Notes on Justin - Jesus as Man .png
Marcovich - Notes on Justin - Jesus as Man .png (135.04 KiB) Viewed 1647 times
Miroslav Marcovich, Notes on Justin Martyr's Apologies, Illinois Classical Studies 17.2 1992.

Other editors and translators have not found it necessary to emend the text the way Marcovich does, nor to understand First Apology 33.7 or Second Apology 6.4 as he does.

Best,

Ken
Last edited by Ken Olson on Fri Jan 07, 2022 5:57 pm, edited 3 times in total.
Secret Alias
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Re: A Breakthrough in My Ishu Theory

Post by Secret Alias »

As always you're splitting hairs. 'In the first place' is a reference to my argument not to where it appears in Origen. The same understanding can be garnered through the LXX where names like Ishbaal are rendered following the same Greek interpretation of Hebrew. It is a significant argument and it is used by other people to establish how Hebrew and Greek understood one another.

The Marcovich discussion begins with a basic fact - there is one exemplar and it is horribly corrupt. The idea that he is 'positing' a lacuna based on some whim is typical of you. What I am proposing is important and worth considering. Whether or not you can't past the man who came up with the idea. Ish is an angel. The two earliest traditions that speak to us - the Alexandrian and the Samaritan acknowledge him as a central but hidden figure in the Torah. The fact that the Greek equivalent - the original and most prevalent nomen sacrum is understood to be present in the same narratives he is identified in - the wrestling with Jacob, the burning bush most notably is extremely significant.

Either Justin or Clement thought 'Jesus' was wrestling with Jacob OR that a superhuman angel named 'man' gathered twelve disciples at the start of the Common Era. The right answer is obvious whether or not you can get over your resentment. I've discussed the idea many times at the forum. This restart was owing to the uncovering of the evidence from the Samaritan Targum's (as noted by Tal). There, in the middle of Aramaic translations of the Torah a Hebrew word 'ish' or more specifically 'alef-yod-shin-he' is transferred to Aramaic. The normal Targumic translation is gavra. So Tal concludes there is something special here. It is the name of an angel and the angel is discussed in detail in my friend Benyamim Tsedaka's English translation of the SP.

Another reason I thought this was significant is that having the Hebrew name in an Aramaic text isn't that far removed from underlining or overscoring the unusual word in the manner that we see or imagine Yahweh to have been marked in foreign translations of the Bible. There really was a divine being with the Hebrew equivalent of the Greek nomen sacrum IC who had a 'hidden role' in the Torah according to Philo and Marqe, the two earliest exegetes we know. This theory has legs and is worth developing into a more formal treatment which I am planning to do once my work busy-ness ceases.
Secret Alias
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Re: A Breakthrough in My Ishu Theory

Post by Secret Alias »

One more thing as I get my son ready for a conference.

Irenaeus says - and this quite significant - THERE IS NO OTHER GOD OF ISRAEL, the Marcionites are wrong. No they weren't. There really was this 'other god' with the 'name of Jesus' hiding in the margins of the Torah in the exact same places that the early Church Fathers say 'Jesus' appeared. How is that not astoundingly significant. It even shows up in Medieval art.

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I really don't get you. How can you be a truth-seeker when you can be so easily and demonstrably sidetracked by pettiness and vengefulness?
Secret Alias
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Re: A Breakthrough in My Ishu Theory

Post by Secret Alias »

Again either IC = a short form of Jesus a man who lived at the start of the Common Era who was believed to have existed at the time of the Patriarchs because ancients were ingesting large amounts of hallucinogens OR IC was originally derived from a well attested angel named 'Man' from the margins of the Torah.

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And why is it that the earlier we go the more IC is taken to have lived at the time of the Patriarchs? It's not like the idea came up in the 5th century. The passages in the Torah which Philo understands to have 'Ish' are taken over by Justin, Clement and Origen as pertaining to 'IC.'

The Marcionites understood our 'IC' to have visited Abraham. The understanding circulates and recirculates in Tertullian. The Marcionites preferred to use the Hebrew text of the Bible than the Greek. Irenaeus criticizes them for having two gods - one punishing (Yahweh) and another (Merciful) just like the contemporary rabbis. This idea that IC was in the Torah, that there were two powers in heaven going back to Philo and the Samaritans makes the likelihood that the nomen sacrum developed from this second power and later was attributed to a man named Jesus. The Marcionite gospel begins with our IC coming down to Jerusalem/Judea and he disappears from the tomb. This is not a normal man. He's God Man.
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