Is Romans 9:5 a late catholic interpolation?

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
Mask
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Re: Is Romans 9:5 a late catholic interpolation?

Post by Mask »

Irish1975 wrote: Thu Dec 23, 2021 10:08 am So God tolerates the survival of these vessels of wrath, whom he has rejected for now, and made “enemies as concerns the Gospel.” Someday they’ll come back, though.
Topic under discussion- Israel's King deals with his rejection by a substantial part of His people.

Anyone else or just me?
schillingklaus
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Re: Is Romans 9:5 a late catholic interpolation?

Post by schillingklaus »

Most of chapter 9-11 is post-marcionite patchwork par excellence, not just 9:15.
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Irish1975
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Re: Is Romans 9:5 a late catholic interpolation?

Post by Irish1975 »

schillingklaus wrote: Tue Jan 04, 2022 12:48 am Most of chapter 9-11 is post-marcionite patchwork par excellence, not just 9:15.
I completely agree. 9–11 reflects a 2nd century context, and all I have been saying is that 9:5 is an even later gloss upon it. It doesn’t fit what the author of Romans 9 would have been talking about, and reeks of a Catholic scribe’s ‘orthodox corruption.’ As I’ve already said, there is no other text in the whole Corpus Paulinum that even suggests (a) the Jewish messiahship of Jesus, or (b) that Jesus is “true God.”

All of Romans is “post-Marcionite patchwork”—a nice description if we take it to include those parts (eg 8:1-30) that are genuinely Marcionite. There is hardly a scrap that does not reflect 2nd century issues—mainly polemics between Catholics and Marcionites. Everything is for the sake of legitimating the grand narrative of “first the Jew, then the Greek”—the basis for a new spiritual religion built on the ruins transformation and appropriation of Judaism.
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