A better translation than "not even" is the following, for 1 Cor 2:6:
The fact that Paul mentions again the rulers in the next verse supports the 2:6's οὐδέ construction as focusing specifically on the rulers of this age.
Ben C. Smith wrote: ↑Mon Nov 09, 2020 12:46 pm So, if you or if anybody wants to get some indication of how "the wisdom of this age" or "the wisdom of the rulers of this age" relate to one another, you cannot be using οὐδέ for that indication, because οὐδέ implies only that both items are negated, not that they relate to each other in any prespecified or predetermined way.
First, it is not "wisdom not of this age", but "not the wisdom of this age".to Bernard,
A better translation than "not even" is the following, for 1 Cor 2:6:
“wisdom not of this age, and specifically not of the rulers of this age”
The fact that Paul mentions again the rulers in the next verse supports the 2:6's οὐδέ construction as focusing specifically on the rulers of this age.
The book in question is from a Christian apologist, Philip B. Payne https://www.pbpayne.com/about/. The book is titled: Man and Woman, One in Christ: An Exegetical and Theological Study of Paul's letters.References here:
https://books.google.it/books?id=evdeBw ... δέ&f=false
Note that that analysis above confutes entirely the Ben C. Smith's conclusion:
I agree that οὐδέ alone doesn't allow distinction.Bernard Muller wrote: ↑Mon Nov 09, 2020 2:22 pm
And even if the wisdom of the rulers is not the wisdom of this age, that does nor mean these rulers are demons.
Well, 1 Cor 2:6 does not say that the wisdom of the rulers is different than the wisdom of this age. And your agreement on οὐδέ should prevent you to be affirmative about this rival wisdom. Your persuasion looks to me to be a statement of faith.I agree that οὐδέ alone doesn't allow distinction.
But I am absolutely persuaded that two wisdoms (both rival against the Paul's hidden wisdom) imply two distinct groups, of which the second is the opposed of the first, and if the first is human, then... well, complete you the syllogism.
First, about the archontes of 1 Cor 2:6&8, because of archontes are identified as Roman authorities in Ro 12:1-7, they do include Romans.you consider "rulers of this age" as Romans. But why as Jewish priests, too ? Do you realize that for Jews be considered guilty of the death of Christ, you have to expect the writing of the Gospels and their apology to exonerate Pilate ? I.e., too much time after the death of Paul?
so you appeal to late Gospel apologetics to make your point. Well to know.Bernard Muller wrote: ↑Tue Nov 10, 2020 11:55 am What about chief priests being included in the archontes of 1 Co 2:6&8.
I cannot used Paul to make my point here.