Bernard Muller wrote:What's this "(allegedly) resurrect"? No allegedly about it. The gospels and Paul say outright he was resurrected. It is the cornerstone of their faith. Your logic -- without the gratuitous qualifier -- means that their Jesus never existed.
I said "allegedly" because I do not agree that Jesus resurrected. Of course I do not deny that Paul had Jesus resurrected.
40 years after an event means, and we are told this so often by many poo-poohing the mythicst case, is easily time enough for eyewitnesses to still be around to trash the suggestion so that it would never fly.
I do not think that eyewitnesses were still around 40 years after. If some of them were still alive, and after the destruction of Jerusalem, I do not see why they would, in their old age, proclaim gMark is trash (if they knew about it). And "Mark" (or early interpolator) made sure that the eyewitnesses did not know about the empty tomb, the "proof" of Jesus' resurrection in gMark.
Cordially, Bernard
So when was this man, Jesus, proclaimed as resurrected? Was it first by Paul? If by Paul, what would compel Paul, who did not know this man from Galilee, to decide he was the resurrected Savior of the world? If before Paul, then who? Where did Paul learn about this man named Jesus, called Christ? Was it from this Jesus' brothers? Were his brothers proclaiming that Jesus had risen from the dead? I am not seeing where your position makes much sense.
EDIT
I see I initially responded to a response and didn't quite catch the reference to a bodily resurrection. I think there are still problems.
1. Jesus the normal, but perhaps compelling, human, marches out of Galilee, upsets High Priests and Pilate and is tortured and crucified.
2. His followers proclaim his resurrection in heaven based on visions.
3. Paul writes that the rulers, including as we both agree, Romans and Sanhedrin, are appointed by God and hold no terror for those who do no wrong.
Let's examine this:
Romans 13.2:So the person who resists such authority resists the ordinance of God, and those who resist will incur judgment 3 (for rulers cause no fear for good conduct but for bad).
So according to you, Jesus must have resisted the ordinance of God, otherwise, he would not have incurred the judgment of Rome. I cannot see how this logic follows.
Romans 13:4 But if you do wrong, be in fear, for it does not bear the sword in vain. It is God’s servant to administer retribution on the wrongdoer.
And, yet, it is your position that the very person Paul worships as the Son of God a) resisted God's ordinance, and was b) justly administered retribution for wrongdoing. Paul never refers to these authorities as having carried out the will of God by crucifying Jesus. You might expect just such a qualification.
In 1 Cor 2:8:
None of the rulers of this age understood it. If they had known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
What is the mystery that, had the Romans known it, they would not have crucified the wandering preacher from Galilee?