Bernard Muller wrote: ↑
Fri Apr 10, 2020 12:21 pm
I understand that logia can be interpreted to mean that Papias is not referring to a gospel, but it can also be interpreted to mean that he is, and that makes the most sense to me not only from the context but also because that is how everyone who had access to Papias' writings in antiquity (and thus had even more to go on than we do) understood it.
Everyone is only 3 authors. And It is far from certain that Origen and Jerome read Papias.
Matthew also issued a written gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect.
— Irenaeus, Against Heresies 3:1 [c.175-185 A.D.]
The first is written according to Matthew, the same that was once a tax collector, but afterwards an emissary of Yeshua the Messiah, who having published it for the Jewish believers, wrote it in Hebrew.
— Origen circa 210 CE, quoted by Eusebius, Eccl. Hist. 6:25
Matthew, who is also Levi, and who from a publican came to be an apostle, first of all composed a Gospel of Christ in Judaea in the Hebrew language and characters for the benefit of those of the circumcision who had believed. Who translated it after that in Greek is not sufficiently ascertained. Moreover, the Hebrew itself is preserved to this day in the library at Caesarea, which the martyr Pamphilus so diligently collected. I also was allowed by the Nazarenes who use this volume in the Syrian city of Beroea to copy it.
— Jerome: De viris inlustribus (On Illustrious Men), chapter III.
He (Shaul) being a Hebrew wrote in Hebrew, that is, his own tongue and most fluently; while things which were eloquently written in Hebrew were more eloquently turned into Greek.
— Jerome, 382 CE, On Illustrious Men, Book V
If the category is church fathers who thought that Matthew had written a gospel in Hebrew, you can add to the list:
Eusebius, History of the Church 3.24.6: For Matthew, who had at first preached to the Hebrews, when he was about to go to other peoples, committed his gospel to writing in his native tongue, and thus compensated those whom he was obliged to leave for the loss of his presence.
From Ephraem, Commentary on the Diatessaron: Matthew the Hebrew wrote this, and behold it was turned into Greek. .... Matthew wrote the gospel in Hebrew, Mark in Latin from Simon in the city of Rome, Luke in Greek; John (at last) wrote it because he remained in the world until the time of Trajan.
Epiphanius, Panarion 51.5.1-3a: 3a As I said, Matthew was privileged to be the first [to issue] the gospel, and this was absolutely right. Because he had repented of many sins and had risen from the receipt of custom and followed him who came for the salvation of man and said: I have not come to call the righteous, but sinners to repentance, it was the duty of Matthew to present the message of salvation as an example for us, who would be saved like this man who was restored in the tax office and turned from his iniquity. From him men would learn the graciousness of the advent of Christ. For after the forgiveness of his sins it was granted him to raise the dead, cleanse leprosy, and work miracles of healing and cast out devils, so that he would not merely persuade his hearers by his speech but preach good tidings with actual deeds, to the perishing the tidings of their salvation through repentance; to the fallen the tidings that they would arise; and to the dead the tidings that they would be quickened. Matthew himself wrote and issued the gospel in the Hebrew alphabet, and did not begin at the beginning, but rather traced the pedigree of Christ from Abraham.
From pseudo-Athanasius, Synopsis of Sacred Scripture: The gospel according to Matthew was written by Matthew himself in the Hebrew dialect and was published in Jerusalem, but translated by James the brother of the Lord according to the flesh, who was appointed bishop by the holy apostles in Jerusalem.
Not vouching for the truth value of any of these passages, nor for their necessary dependence upon Papias. Just filling out the list a bit.