Initially gMatthew did not have the reappearance in Galilee, as I demonstrated on my web page indicated earlier.You did not answer my question. I asked how the author of the Longer Ending of Mark solved the problem of there being no Galilean appearance in Mark. Matthew has nothing to do with it.
No fulfillment of previous prophecies about some reappearance? If "Matthew" could do it, why not the author of the long ending?
And I already explained why it makes more sense to have the reappearances in Jerusalem rather that much later in Galilee.
On your diagram, I do not see where you put gJohn and gMark and your proto-Luke in relation with the long ending. And your yellow rectangle should be erased, because based on wild unevidenced possibilities.
Cordially, Bernard