Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com

But we don't see reinterpretation in the Gospel of Mark or Gospel of Matthew, do we? We do see it in the Gospel of Luke. Why did not Mark and Matthew reinterpret the supposedly failed prophecy?

As far as I can see we have to imagine readers placing a nonintuitive interpretation on the "original" and "failed" prophecy for our thesis to work. But the Millerites who continued in their faith did document reinterpretations -- as we see Luke also doing.

That's not what our earliest evangelists did.

I believe we do have evidence to support the general principle in the OP:

When the authors of the gospels of John and Luke saw problems with the prophecies in Mark and Matthew then they qualified them, spiritualized them, as per Ellen G. White wrt the Millerite expectations.

So something happened between Mark/Matthew and John/Luke that led to a rewriting of the prophecy.