Judas Iscariot
Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2018 10:33 am
My view of Judas was shaped by Hyam Maccoby's Judas Iscariot and the Myth of Jewish Evil over twenty years ago and I haven't looked into Judas much since then beyond assuming that he is entirely fictional and intended to malign Jews because of his name (from which "Jew" is derived). But now that I'm starting to see Jesus as a Fourth Philosopher and that his disciples were consequently a mixed bag, I'm starting to wonder if there could be anything to the idea that Judas had belonged to the sicarii (and perhaps actually existed). Oh, there's this and that book on Google books that I could link to that argue for the sicarii connection, but for now I'm just curious to see what people here might have to say about this idea. The "ish Kerioth" (or "man from Kerioth") idea doesn't seem to explain why Judas betrayed Jesus. But if he had belonged to the sicarii, then it would make a lot of sense, since Fourth Philosophers are known to have turned on each other (like Niger of Perea, who was killed by more extreme Fourth Philosophers).
For me, it would make sense if someone who had belonged to the sicarii had betrayed Jesus, given his moderation.
And while we are at it, I want to take another look at Simon the Canaanite (or Zealot), who appears to be associated with Judas and is called Iscariot in John 6:71 (for whatever that may be worth). Again, I'm thinking that, as a Fourth Philosopher, it would make sense if Jesus had a "zealot" disciple. But I'm seeing that in Mk. 3:18 he is called "Καναναῖον" and in Matthew 10:4 he is called "Καναναῖος." Does this mean that Matthew misunderstood Mark, or did Mark fail to appreciate the "zealot" sense of Καναναῖον (and/or do translations that say "Canaanite" -also?- misunderstand the "zealot" sense behind it) and Matthew corrected it? What does it even mean to say that Simon was a "Canaanite" in this time period anyway? Offhand, it seems like "zealot" would fit the context of the times better. As noted here, for example, zealots are called Kanayim in Hebrew:
For me, it would make sense if someone who had belonged to the sicarii had betrayed Jesus, given his moderation.
And while we are at it, I want to take another look at Simon the Canaanite (or Zealot), who appears to be associated with Judas and is called Iscariot in John 6:71 (for whatever that may be worth). Again, I'm thinking that, as a Fourth Philosopher, it would make sense if Jesus had a "zealot" disciple. But I'm seeing that in Mk. 3:18 he is called "Καναναῖον" and in Matthew 10:4 he is called "Καναναῖος." Does this mean that Matthew misunderstood Mark, or did Mark fail to appreciate the "zealot" sense of Καναναῖον (and/or do translations that say "Canaanite" -also?- misunderstand the "zealot" sense behind it) and Matthew corrected it? What does it even mean to say that Simon was a "Canaanite" in this time period anyway? Offhand, it seems like "zealot" would fit the context of the times better. As noted here, for example, zealots are called Kanayim in Hebrew:
So, before I go checking around to see what else I can find about this on Google books, I thought I'd see what people here might think of the idea that Judas had belonged to the sicarii and that Simon was a zealot. It seems like the simplest (and best) idea to me.The Great Revolt that led to the destruction of the Second Temple was led by the Kanayim.
https://www.thejc.com/judaism/jewish-words/kanai-1.8032