Why Pilate? Because of "Messianization"

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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Giuseppe
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Why Pilate? Because of "Messianization"

Post by Giuseppe » Sat Oct 13, 2018 11:48 am


The author was writing for a Roman audience and decided to change the Jewish custom of hanging the body on a tree after death and place the crucifixion in a Roman setting: this further involved the need to have a Roman magistrate issue the final order for the crucifixion, and the name Pontius Pilate was well enough known and came conveniently to hand;

https://vridar.org/2018/10/13/jesus-fro ... n-a-cross/

If the hanging of Jesus on a tree, in the original myth, reflected an anti-nomian conflict between the Creator and Jesus (especially if the latter was the revealer Serpent and giver of the Gnosis), then a Roman crucifixion could work very well as the his Judaizing contrary: any Jewish Messianist was victim of Rome, because he had only YHWH "as his Lord and Master". The "prince of this world" ceases to be the Creator and becomes the evil Beliar working behind the kittim. Remember that the chief worldly allies of Beliar are the 'Kittim': the Romans.

This fits with the strong possibility, in my view, that, in the Earliest Gospel, Jesus was crucified by the Romans and only by the Romans.

The his answer to Pilate, "TU DICES", was meant as an arrogant answer.
The his silence before Pilate was meant as full of hatred against his Pagan judge.

In this sense his silence before Pilate remembers the false "pacifism" of the essenes.


His rapid death on the cross, with relative surprise by Pilate, was meant as a partial revenge prefiguring the same imminence of the Parusia.

(Even so, the first evangelist had to esorcize the risk that some readers continued to see the same Creator behind the killers of Jesus).
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.

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