Re: a new 'Mythicist' commentary on Mark
Posted: Sat Jul 14, 2018 2:31 pm
I don’t know what level of critic you are looking for.
I don’t know what level of knowledge you assume from your intended audience.
I am going to assume that you are writing for a general audience who don’t know New Testament Greek and don’t want to have find a copy of the Septuagint in both Greek and English to refer to as they read what you have written. I also am going to assume that you can edit what you have already written.
I have a general criticism – in what I have read so far you are making sweeping conclusions from the use of very few words from the Old Testament (for example the use of μεσημβριαν in Acts 8:26 and 22:6 links to the same word in Isaiah 18:4).
Some scholars believe that the gospel writers decided to use the language of the Septuagint even when not quoting it. However, it is possible that their language was just heavily influenced by it, as my mother’s was by being educated by a school run by nuns. Therefore shouldn’t you try to determine which it is?
In “Cleverley devised myth? …” you use “OG” which is not an abbreviation I am familiar with and couldn’t find on the internet.
In “Introduction: part 1 ...” I like your section on Mt 28:18 and 2 Chron. 36:23 as you quoted both and put the Greek words you are comparing in brackets. However, you don’t continue to do this.
I can’t notice how Mt 28:18f parallels Daniel 7:14 because you don’t post it.
You use the word “Theodition” without defining what it is. So I can’t see how Mt 28:10b combines the different versions of Daniel 7:14 because you don’t point them out.
The idea that Mt 5:33-37 especially 5:37 has a relationship to James 5:12 is not new. I think you need to state why you think Matthew used James as a source rather than James using Matthew or a common source such as Q.
As far as I can see you are linking James 5:11 and the Beatitudes by only the use of μακαρίζομεν in James and μακάριοι in Matthew, or even using James 1:12 with its μακαριος.
I am surprised you are implying that the word εκατονταρχος is used in 2 Kings 11:5 rather than 11:4. This mistake seems to be because you are not quoting the texts.
In “Introduction: part 2 …” you state there are parallels between the story of Heliodorus in 2 Macc 3:24-36 and Paul’s conversion in Acts 9. I wish in Acts 9 there was a vision of young man on a horse accompanied by two other young men who scourged Paul inflicting many blows on him. Unfortunately not even Paul sees anyone, he has a ‘vision’ with sound only. It is not until Acts 22 that anyone sees even a light and Acts 28 before it is implied that Paul sees Jesus.
I don’t know what level of knowledge you assume from your intended audience.
I am going to assume that you are writing for a general audience who don’t know New Testament Greek and don’t want to have find a copy of the Septuagint in both Greek and English to refer to as they read what you have written. I also am going to assume that you can edit what you have already written.
I have a general criticism – in what I have read so far you are making sweeping conclusions from the use of very few words from the Old Testament (for example the use of μεσημβριαν in Acts 8:26 and 22:6 links to the same word in Isaiah 18:4).
Some scholars believe that the gospel writers decided to use the language of the Septuagint even when not quoting it. However, it is possible that their language was just heavily influenced by it, as my mother’s was by being educated by a school run by nuns. Therefore shouldn’t you try to determine which it is?
In “Cleverley devised myth? …” you use “OG” which is not an abbreviation I am familiar with and couldn’t find on the internet.
In “Introduction: part 1 ...” I like your section on Mt 28:18 and 2 Chron. 36:23 as you quoted both and put the Greek words you are comparing in brackets. However, you don’t continue to do this.
I can’t notice how Mt 28:18f parallels Daniel 7:14 because you don’t post it.
You use the word “Theodition” without defining what it is. So I can’t see how Mt 28:10b combines the different versions of Daniel 7:14 because you don’t point them out.
The idea that Mt 5:33-37 especially 5:37 has a relationship to James 5:12 is not new. I think you need to state why you think Matthew used James as a source rather than James using Matthew or a common source such as Q.
As far as I can see you are linking James 5:11 and the Beatitudes by only the use of μακαρίζομεν in James and μακάριοι in Matthew, or even using James 1:12 with its μακαριος.
I am surprised you are implying that the word εκατονταρχος is used in 2 Kings 11:5 rather than 11:4. This mistake seems to be because you are not quoting the texts.
In “Introduction: part 2 …” you state there are parallels between the story of Heliodorus in 2 Macc 3:24-36 and Paul’s conversion in Acts 9. I wish in Acts 9 there was a vision of young man on a horse accompanied by two other young men who scourged Paul inflicting many blows on him. Unfortunately not even Paul sees anyone, he has a ‘vision’ with sound only. It is not until Acts 22 that anyone sees even a light and Acts 28 before it is implied that Paul sees Jesus.