Why is Peter called Satan in Mark?

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Giuseppe
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Why is Peter called Satan in Mark?

Post by Giuseppe »

If Peter doesn't like the idea of a suffering Christ, then does he become "Satan" in virtue of this rejection? Or was he "Satan" even before this his explicit rejection of the idea?

In this latter case, Peter is "Satan" as he recognizes Jesus as the "Christ" (just as the demons).

Is Peter becomes "Satan" only after or already before his rejection of the idea of the death of Jesus, at any rate then he shares with the demons:

1) the recognition of the Messianic identity of Jesus
2) the desire that the Christ doesn't come (to be killed)

If Peter/"Satan" has to come "behind" Jesus just as "Satan", this means that he will follow Jesus on the way to the cross.

Is he Simon of Cyrene?
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
Giuseppe
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Re: Why is Peter called Satan in Mark?

Post by Giuseppe »

If Peter/"Satan" is allegorized by Simon of Cyrene & sons, then the irony is that Jesus, like a Roman general, is fulfiling Colossians 2:15
And having disarmed the powers and authorities, he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them by the cross
Simon of Cyrene and the women allegorize the prisoners - men, sons and women - of the victorious Roman general, shown by the latter during his triumph.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
Giuseppe
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Re: Why is Peter called Satan in Mark?

Post by Giuseppe »

"Cyrene" may refer once again to the typical riotous city repressed by Rome. As such, a "Cyrenaic" is by definition someone who is dragged in a Roman triumph.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
Giuseppe
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Re: Why is Peter called Satan in Mark?

Post by Giuseppe »

According to Strong’s Concordance ‘Cyrene’ means ‘supremacy of the bridle.” So the idea may be that the cross on the shoulders of the "Cyrenaic" Simon (Peter/"Satan") functioned as the bridle put on slaves and prisoners in a Roman triumph.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
John2
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Re: Why is Peter called Satan in Mark?

Post by John2 »

I just took a look at Mark 8 and here is the passage in question:
Jesus and his disciples went on to the villages around Caesarea Philippi. On the way he asked them, “Who do people say I am?” They replied, “Some say John the Baptist; others say Elijah; and still others, one of the prophets.” “But what about you?” he asked. “Who do you say I am?” Peter answered, “You are the Messiah.” Jesus warned them not to tell anyone about him.

He then began to teach them that the Son of Man must suffer many things and be rejected by the elders, the chief priests and the teachers of the law, and that he must be killed and after three days rise again. He spoke plainly about this, and Peter took him aside and began to rebuke him.

But when Jesus turned and looked at his disciples, he rebuked Peter. “Get behind me, Satan!” he said. “You do not have in mind the concerns of God, but merely human concerns.”
My impression is that this is another example of the mixing of the Davidic Messiah and Daniel's "son of man" in Christianity and Peter is having a hard time getting his head around the "son of man" part. I gather Jesus is not calling Peter Satan because he thinks he is Satan, because he goes on to say that Peter has "human concerns." I think he might be calling Peter Satan in the sense of being an adversary (which is the meaning of Satan), like in Numbers 22:22, where the angel of the Lord is called "satan":
But God’s anger was kindled because he went, and the angel of the Lord took his stand in the way as his adversary [satan].
http://biblehub.com/hebrew/7854.htm
You know in spite of all you gained, you still have to stand out in the pouring rain.
Stefan Kristensen
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Re: Why is Peter called Satan in Mark?

Post by Stefan Kristensen »

I think Satan is working through Peter here, in that he is acting defensively either because:

1. he is trying to prevent Jesus from going to the cross (by using Peter's objections)
or
2. he is reacting to the one fatal weapon that can defeat him: the "gospel" (here in the form of the co-called passion prediction)
or
3. both of the above.

The force of option 2. comes from this line of argument. The so-called 'passion prediction' is a "teaching" (8:31), and Jesus' teaching is generally called "the word" in gMark, "ο λογος". This teaching, "the word", is most likely what Mark understands as the "gospel" (cf. the Parable of the Sower sowint "the word"), that must be preached to all the world (e.g. 13:10). So Jesus travels around teaching "the word", as Mark describes it, but this event here, the first passion prediction, 8:31, must be the first time in the story (and in world history, then) that the "gospel" is spoken in its true form: Jesus must suffer, die and be resurrected. Therefore the narrator tells us concerning this first passion prediction, this "teaching", that "Jesus said all this quite openly" (8:32). This could be the explicit reason for Satan to react (through Peter): The Word is out! Which means Satan's days are numbered now. This is the teaching that will defeat Satan. In fact, the Greek of 8:32 is quite interesting:
και παρρησιᾳ τον λογον ελαλει

This can carry several meanings:
1. And he said all this quite openly.
2. And he spoke the Word openly.
3. And he spoke the Word without fear.
This further strengthens the case for option 2. imo.
Giuseppe
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Re: Why is Peter called Satan in Mark?

Post by Giuseppe »

Stefan Kristensen wrote: Mon Nov 27, 2017 7:14 am I think Satan is working through Peter here, in that he is acting defensively either because:

1. he is trying to prevent Jesus from going to the cross (by using Peter's objections)
or
2. he is reacting to the one fatal weapon that can defeat him: the "gospel" (here in the form of the co-called passion prediction)
or
3. both of the above.
Hi Stefan,

what do you fit this your interesting view with the ignorance of Satan about the mission of Jesus in 1 Cor 2:6-8 ?
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
Giuseppe
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Re: Why is Peter called Satan in Mark?

Post by Giuseppe »

I note en passant that Jesus doesn't reveal the identity of the crucified one. He predicts that the Son of Man will die.

For me the Son of Man is the material body of Jesus, not his divine nature. This Son of Man is without a name in the words of Jesus so that Satan can't recognize which man has to die precisely to fulfill the his same destruction.

Until to the end, Satan realizes that ''something'' is going against him but he doesn't realize what is the cause.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
Giuseppe
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Re: Why is Peter called Satan in Mark?

Post by Giuseppe »

This is precisely true also for another man possessed by Satan: the high priest. Jesus reveals to him the triumph of a mysterious ''Son of Man'', raising naturaliter the dilemma: ''we are all son of men, who is precisely the Son of Man?''. Satan can't know and hence his anger.

Mark 14:62
I am,” said Jesus. “And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven.”
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
Stefan Kristensen
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Re: Why is Peter called Satan in Mark?

Post by Stefan Kristensen »

Giuseppe wrote: Mon Nov 27, 2017 9:12 am
Stefan Kristensen wrote: Mon Nov 27, 2017 7:14 am I think Satan is working through Peter here, in that he is acting defensively either because:

1. he is trying to prevent Jesus from going to the cross (by using Peter's objections)
or
2. he is reacting to the one fatal weapon that can defeat him: the "gospel" (here in the form of the co-called passion prediction)
or
3. both of the above.
Hi Stefan,

what do you fit this your interesting view with the ignorance of Satan about the mission of Jesus in 1 Cor 2:6-8 ?
Hm, don't know really. The question is, was this an Obi Wan situation? Was Satan tricked big time? He thinks he is defeating the son of God, but he doesn't know that if he strikes him down, he shall become more powerful than he can possibly imagine!

Also, when Paul says that the "rulers of this world" (if he indeed refers to spiritual forces) "crucified the lord of glory", does he mean that these "rulers" understood, that the one they crucified was the lord of glory?

It is an interesting notion, that Jesus in gMark may be keeping things a secret not just from people, but also from Satan. So maybe your suggestion here could involve, that Mark believed that God had purposely hidden his true plan, i.e. the suffering, dying and rising Messiah. So that neither the scribes see it in Scripture (9:11-13; 12:35-37) nor Satan and his minions. It is also true that Jesus never says that he himself is going to die. All the time when he talks about his suffering and death, he talks about "the son of man" and in one case a subtle hint about the "bridegroom" being "taken away" (2:20). It is striking indeed, and maybe the key is in the expression 'son of man'. That expression is one of the biggest mysteries, I think.
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