Why is Simon of Cyrene named with the his sons?
Posted: Tue Nov 14, 2017 10:21 am
In another post I have advanced the hypothesis that the two lesthai were named in the Earliest Gospel to mark by contrast, the total anonymity of the crucified man ''called Christ'' by the people (per Mark 8:28-29 as anti-marcionite interpolations).
Now I think that a such contrast is even more strong if we consider also the presence of the names of the sons of Simon of Cyrene as being there in virtue of the same intention: the people knew perfectly even the name and provenance and identity of the man who did bear the cross, but the same people didn't know that Jesus was not the Christ predicted by the Scriptures.
Now I think that a such contrast is even more strong if we consider also the presence of the names of the sons of Simon of Cyrene as being there in virtue of the same intention: the people knew perfectly even the name and provenance and identity of the man who did bear the cross, but the same people didn't know that Jesus was not the Christ predicted by the Scriptures.