After the 70 was the Christianity more (and not less) judaized?
Posted: Sun Sep 10, 2017 5:13 am
It would be expected that after the 70 the Christians of the Diaspora were more in strict contact - and not less - with Christians came from Jerusalem with the strong intention of judaizing the Christians of the Diaspora. This new invasion of Judaizers was provoked by the same Fall of Jerusalem in 70 CE, which caused therefore not an irrealistic (and often apologetical) division between Christianity and Judaism, but at contrary a second judaization of Jewish sects of the Diaspora that until to that moment were progressively de-judaizing themselves succesfully and would have continued to do so if Jerusalem wasn't fallen (and most of his inhabitants weren't moved to abandon Judaea).
Therefore we should see more freedom from Judaism at the same pre-70 origins of Christianity and vice versa more fabricated links with Judaism after the 70 and the 135. Read: the ebionites and other Jewish-Christian sects were a late phenomenon.
Before the 70 a James the Pillar wouldn't have had no interest to send his Judaizers among the Galatians. But AFTER the 70 the Judaizers had necessarily to abandon Jerusalem and therefore to judaize the communities of the Diaspora. Therefore the Epistle of Galatians fits more a post-70 context.
Therefore it is more probable that the god of the Jews was hated by some Jews of the Diaspora a lot more in a time BEFORE than a time after the 70.
Hence the question is:
1)was also the name "Jesus" a result of that post-70 judaization?
2) was Marcion a "proto-catholic" insofar he wanted to find a first timid accord between previous Christian gentiles and the later Judaizers?
Therefore we should see more freedom from Judaism at the same pre-70 origins of Christianity and vice versa more fabricated links with Judaism after the 70 and the 135. Read: the ebionites and other Jewish-Christian sects were a late phenomenon.
Before the 70 a James the Pillar wouldn't have had no interest to send his Judaizers among the Galatians. But AFTER the 70 the Judaizers had necessarily to abandon Jerusalem and therefore to judaize the communities of the Diaspora. Therefore the Epistle of Galatians fits more a post-70 context.
Therefore it is more probable that the god of the Jews was hated by some Jews of the Diaspora a lot more in a time BEFORE than a time after the 70.
Hence the question is:
1)was also the name "Jesus" a result of that post-70 judaization?
2) was Marcion a "proto-catholic" insofar he wanted to find a first timid accord between previous Christian gentiles and the later Judaizers?