Why Pilate? Because an object of special Jewish detestation

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Giuseppe
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Why Pilate? Because an object of special Jewish detestation

Post by Giuseppe »

Finally, there is a manipulation of narratives on the question of the responsability for Jesus'execution, the outcome being that it lies neither with the Roman governor nor with the sub-Roman king, but with the Jewish priests and people. In all likelihood most of those episodes were first set forth in a Gentile Passion-play, whence they passed into the common stream of tradition; but such an item as the part played by Pilate is likely to have been first introduced from the Jewish side, Pilate having been an object of special Jewish detestation.
(J. M. Robertson, A Short History of Christianity, p. 33, my bold)


The facts:


a Gentile Passion-play: the Jews killed Jesus.

a Jewish Passion-play: Pilate and Herod killed Jesus.

canonical Passion-play: the Jewish priests killed Jesus via Pilate (and Herod).

the Talmudic Passion-play: the Jews killed Jesus.


A possible evolution of the Passion-play:

1) the original Gentile Passion-play: the Jews killed Jesus.

2) the Jewish-Christian reaction: Pilate and Herod killed Jesus.

3) the pro-Roman adulation: the Jewish priests killed Jesus via Pilate (and Herod).

4) the Talmud preserved the original version of point 1.


Another possible evolution of the Passion-play:


1) the original Jewish Passion-play: Pilate (and Herod?) killed Jesus.

2) the Gentile reaction: the Jewish priests killed Jesus via Pilate (and Herod)

3) the later Gentile reaction: the Jews killed Jesus.

4) the Talmud based on the later tradition of point 3.


I note that to say Pilate in any Gospel is equivalent to refer to the Barabbas affair.
Pilate is introduced at the same moment when Barabbas is introduced.

No Barabbas ---> no Pilate.
No Pilate ----> no Barabbas.

Is possible than in a previous Passion-play the Jews were asking the liberation of Jesus Barabbas and Pilate answered ''NO! I want to crucify just him, the Jesus son of the Father!'' ?

In this way you have the realistic detail of Pilate being a tyrant and you can explain why ''Jesus Barabbas'' has that 'strange' name.

The Talmudists have a reason to make the Jews killers of Jesus: they hate the Jesus of the later Christians.

The Gentile Christians have a reason to make the Jews killers of Jesus: they hate the Jews.

the Jewish Christians have a reason to make Pilate the deliberate killer of Jesus: they hate Pilate.


For two times Josephus says us that Pilate was asked and implored by the Jews to save someone or something. He is the best candidate to concede or deny something to the Jews en masse.

Sic stantibur rebus, it is difficult to decide which was the original version (one with Pilate or without him).
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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