Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com

Because the Jews were not possessed by demons (the pagan gods) but were simply blind people.

Therefore the first guy met by Jesus in Galilee was a possessed by evil spirit (a GENTILE), while the first guy met by Jesus in Judea was the blind man Bartimaeus son of Timaeus: a JEW.

Rylands's view here.

What is the significance of this Ryland view?

Giuseppe wrote:Because the Jews were not possessed by demons (the pagan gods) but were simply blind people.

Therefore the first guy met by Jesus in Galilee was a possessed by evil spirit (a GENTILE), while the first guy met by Jesus in Judea was the blind man Bartimaeus son of Timaeus: a JEW.

Rylands's view here.

So why are the demons in the synagogues of Galilee then rather than just on the street?

Also in Mark 3, "a great multitude from Galilee followed him, and from Judaea, and from Jerusalem, and from Idumaea, and from beyond Jordan; and they about Tyre and Sidon," and he cast demons out of them. There doesn't seem to be any interest to claim that none of thrm were in the people from Jerusalrm and Judea.

Giuseppe wrote: Therefore the first guy met by Jesus in Galilee was a possessed by evil spirit (a GENTILE),

Frankly, a really STUPID conclusion to jump to since it took place in a synagogue. Apparently Rylands does not actually read.

Rylands talked about the possessed man of Gadara as the official "entry" in gentile Galilee.


The fact remains that in Judea you have no exorcism, but only in Galilee. Have you a better explanation for this than that proposed by Rylands?

This says us that earliest Chrianity was an anti-pagan crusade. Thetefore the Gospel esoterism had to defend Christians from Pagans first, and from the Jews, after.

Giuseppe wrote:Rylands talked about the possessed man of Gadara as the official "entry" in gentile Galilee.

He'd have to, because only by conveniently ignoring that Jesus' first miracle (period) in Mark is casting out a demon in a synagogue in Capernaum (in Galilee) in Mark 1:21-28, can he make his theory seem to work.

Giuseppe wrote: The fact remains that in Judea you have no exorcism, but only in Galilee. Have you a better explanation for this than that proposed by Rylands?

Jesus in John is commuting back and forth between Judea and Galilee but not in Mark. Rather, the people from Judea are coming to Galilee to be healed by Jesus and have their demons cast out. Could be explained that his popularity was such, everyone with a demon, even in Jerusalem itself, came to Galilee to be healed by him long before he ever began heading towards Judea.

Mark 3:27 "No man can enter into a strong man's house, and spoil his goods, except he will first bind the strong man; and then he will spoil his house."

He doesn't dare enter the strong man's house (Jerusalem) without first disarming him (casting out the demons). But not being able to disarm him in his own house, but having to do so before entering the house, necessitates tricking him into sending the arms outside. Scribes and Pharisees coming from Jerusalem accusing him of casting out demons by Beelzebub...did they bring demon possessed from Jerusalem with them to facilitate the accusation by having him cast them out?

Isn't what we have a Galilean ministry followed by a short trek to Jerusalem to be crucified and NOT a Judean ministry?

I like a lot your interpretation about the "strong man". But so I like also the Rylands's distinction between Jewish blindness and Gentile demonic possession. Bartimeus did recognize the Christ only by "blind" faith in him, at contrary of the other Jews.

The first exorcism in Galilee was among GENTILES:

They went to Capernaum, and when the Sabbath came, Jesus went into the synagogue and began to teach. 22 The people were amazed at his teaching, because he taught them as one who had authority, not as the teachers of the law. 23 Just then a man in their synagogue who was possessed by an impure spirit cried out, 24 “What do you want with us, Jesus of Nazareth? Have you come to destroy us? I know who you are—the Holy One of God!”

The "wonder" by the people for the "surprising" Jesus is always a feature of gentile Christians, in Mark, never of Jewish Christians.

Note that the Galilean demons fear the MAN Jesus
while the Judean blind men fear the GOD Jesus.

The blind Jews don't want to see the divine in Jesus
While the Galilean demons don't want to see the MAN in Jesus.

This betrayes awareness by Mark of both marcionism (rejection of the humanity of Jesus) and of ebionitism (rejection of the high christology in Jesus).

Giuseppe wrote:

Note that the Galilean demons fear the MAN Jesus
while the Judean blind men fear the GOD Jesus.

The blind Jews don't want to see the divine in Jesus
While the Galilean demons don't want to see the MAN in Jesus.

This betrayes awareness by Mark of both marcionism (rejection of the humanity of Jesus) and of ebionitism (rejection of the high christology in Jesus).

What a sneaky metaphor if true.

I think that the markan Jesus aims to overcome the differences between the gentile Christians (Galilee) and the Jewish Christians (Judea).
The former were possessed by demons insofar they rejected the humanity of Jesus.

The latter were blind people insofar they didn't recognized the celestial origin or status of Jesus.

The paradox is that:
The former (demons) crucified the spirit of Jesus.
The latter (Jews) crucified the flesh of Jesus.


The gentiles had to become historicists while the Jews had to become mythicists.

This is the enigma of Mark.