Nitpick: Mark does not narrate Joseph of Arimathea asking for three crucified; Mark narrates Joseph asking for the body of Jesus. If we imagine Joseph as a Jew acting out of piety like Tobit, then it is not a stretch to imagine him asking for all three bodies. But Mark does not actually say that.JoeWallack wrote:"Mark's" Joseph apo Arimathias asks for and receives three crucified, one of which recovers. Josephus apo Matthias asks for and receives one of three crucified who recovers:
Correspondent: Paul Tobin
Link: The Burial
Back to the quote:
When I tracked this statement down I found that footnote 11 names the source for this speculation as page 157 of The Passover Plot.JoeWallack wrote:Smoking gun excerpt:
The similarity in the names of the main protagonist is also considerable. In the same work, Josephus elucidated his distinguished ancestry. His grandfather, also named Joseph, begot Matthias his father in the tenth year of the reign of Archelaus (AD6). In the Greek text (the language Josephus wrote in) Joseph begot Matthias is rendered as Josepou Matthias. In Mark's gospel, Joseph of Arimathea is written in Greek as Joseph apo Arimathias, the similarity is curious. To quote Schonfield:
It is certainly curious that we have Josephus, himself a Josepou Matthias, begging the Roman commander for the bodies of three crucified friends, one of whom is brought back to life. [11]
So that is one possibility for the origin of the place name Arimathea: it corresponds to Matthias, father of Josephus, which makes Joseph equal Josephus in some (presumably symbolic) way. I must admit, this was a new one for me.
Here is one that was not at all new to me, from Peter Kirby:
Footnote 99 on that page indicates that the source was private correspondence with Carrier.
So that is another possibility for the origin of the place name Arimathea: it means best disciple town, and is a Marcan fancy.
There is also a more traditional viewpoint on this topic, and that is that we are supposed to understand Joseph of Arimathea (Ἰωσὴφ ὁ ἀπὸ Ἁριμαθαίας in Mark 15.43) as hailing from a town called Ramah (height) or Ramoth (heights), of which there were apparently several in the region. This name gets rendered as Ramathaim-Zophim (הָרָמָתַ֛יִם צוֹפִ֖ים) in 1 Samuel 1.1 (1 Kingdoms 1.1 LXX: Αρμαθαιμ Σιφα), or as just plain Αρμαθαιμ in 1 Kingdoms 1.3, 19 LXX. In Joshua 20.8 LXX it comes out as Αρημωθ. Joshua 19.36 in Vaticanus has Αρμαιθ where in Alexandrinus we find Ραμα. Also possibly related is the epistle of Demetrius to Lasthenes (1 Maccabees 11.32-37 = Josephus, Antiquities 13.4.9 §127-129a), which mentions the taking possession of the three districts of Aphairema, Lydda, and Rathamin/Ramathain (Ραθαμιν in 1 Maccabees 11.34, but Ραμαθαιν in Antiquities 13.4.9 §127).
(The names with an initial R are simply anarthrous, whereas those with an initial A are including the Hebrew definite article in the name.)
So that is another possibility for the origin of the place name Arimathea: it is a variant of the place name Ramoth.
Are there other viable options? If so, what are they? And what does each of the options above have to commend it to us?
I will confess outright that I currently lean heavily toward the third option: Ramoth. It seems a fairly easy derivation, so far as names go from Hebrew into Greek. If you hold to either of the first two, what am I missing?
Ben.