I mean: despite of the Marcion's corrections.
And obviously: assuming original epistles.
The point is expected given the fact that, after the 70, there was an invasion, in the communities of the Diaspora, of the Judean Jews, obviously more conservatives and Torah-observants than the otherwise more liberal communities of the Diaspora.
Was the Apostolikon even more judaizing than the original epistles?
Re: Was the Apostolikon even more judaizing than the original epistles?
The paradox is that, after the 70, while from a political POV there was a reduction of rights for Jews, it was not so in the Christian communities, where the Judaizers appeared to increase newly in number (and therefore in power) for effect of the emigration from the defeated Judea.