Basic reason why the name of Pilate was absent in the Earliest Passion Story extrapolated from Mark

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DrSarah
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Re: Basic reason why the name of Pilate was absent in the Earliest Passion Story extrapolated from Mark

Post by DrSarah »

Giuseppe wrote: Wed Feb 28, 2024 5:05 am

As Aaron releases (פלט) the goat for Hayom Kippur (= the day of atonement) so Pilate=פילטוס releases (פלת) Barabbas for the Pesach.
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Once again: I cannot find any place in the description of the release of the goat that uses the PLT root. If you've found such a place, by all means give me the verse.
Giuseppe wrote: Wed Feb 28, 2024 5:05 am
In addition, it is not "to release" that needs to be translated in Hebrew but the personal name, since read here:
Giuseppe wrote: Wed Feb 28, 2024 1:35 am Continuing:

Note that when the root PLT appears in masculine personal names, it has always the meaning of "to save, to release, to set free, to deliver".

https://books.google.it/books?id=TyJBBD ... se&f=false

Obviously "PiLaTe" is a masculine personal name, for a native speaker.

EDIT TO ADD: see page 556 of the link above.


Image
But the names in that snippet aren't being translated as 'to deliver' or 'deliverer', but as versions of 'deliverance'. Yes, it's an associated word; but none of those names are being translated as referring to the person in question being a deliverer. They're being translated as referring to God providing deliverance for the person so addressed.
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Re: Basic reason why the name of Pilate was absent in the Earliest Passion Story extrapolated from Mark

Post by davidmartin »

DrSarah you're obviously one of those people that likes the know the actual facts of things. It's a common condition, not sure what the cure is!

In this case I think Giuseppe's understanding of the word is right though...
I took a look at strongs https://www.bibletools.org/index.cfm/fu ... /palat.htm
(yes this is bibletools but it's a direct copy of what's on strongs)

So it's used in verses like "Deliver me, O my God, out of the hand of the wicked, out of the hand of the unrighteous"
They give meanings ''to escape, save, deliver, slip away, to bring into security'

So i don't think there's a problem with the meaning lining up to what happens to Barabbas. By the way, I'm not saying I believe this theory.. it's just interesting and worth thinking about. I'm open to believing it but not convinced yet - mainly because Pilate seems to be a real individual but that doesn't stop someone using a happy co-incidence...

One problem is that biblically the deliverer is God. So its putting Pilate in the place of God here which is a little... awkward although I suppose the counter to that is Pilate is doing 'God's will' in delivering Barabbas. Still, it's a bizarre interpretation where a cypher for another Jesus gets delivered by Pilate acting as 'God the deliverer' meanwhile the other Jesus isn't delivered and calls out 'why am I forsaken' to God the deliverer.
This is whack. I can't get my head round it. How is this Marcionite? or is it anti-Marcionite or something else. Is Pilate 'the just God' of justice or the 'good God'?
Because the implication is the 'good/just God saves his son' (and Pilate is portrayed as a good/just guy contrary to every expectation since he's reported to be a real sod). Is what happens to Barabbas a form of ransoming according to Marcionite ideas? I do not know. All I'm saying is... it's a really bizarre scene that Giuseppe managed to pull out of the text!
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Giuseppe
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Re: Basic reason why the name of Pilate was absent in the Earliest Passion Story extrapolated from Mark

Post by Giuseppe »

DrSarah wrote: Thu Feb 29, 2024 12:39 am
Giuseppe wrote: Wed Feb 28, 2024 5:05 am Image
But the names in that snippet aren't being translated as 'to deliver' or 'deliverer', but as versions of 'deliverance'. Yes, it's an associated word; but none of those names are being translated as referring to the person in question being a deliverer. They're being translated as referring to God providing deliverance for the person so addressed.
Consider only the personal name "Pelet", meaning "deliverance": this name occurs twice in the OT as personal name and is not a theophoric name. If in a story (assumed to be symbolical for a lot of other reasons) it is said obsessively that "Pelet releases someone", then one can't fail to remember that "Pelet" means "deliverance" therefore (i.e.: not coincidentially) he is portrayed while he releases/delivers someone, as according to his name.

As parallel, consider the etymology of Judas’s nickname ’Iskariṓt(h): one can derive it from the Hebrew/Aramaic verb šāqar/šeqar (“to lie, deceive, slander”, sc. “to violate (a treaty, etc.)”, “to betray” [the latter meaning is attested in Samaritan Aramaic] therefore (i.e.: not coincidentially) he is portrayed while he betrayes/deceives someone, as according to his name.

But you and Secret Alias are claiming that Judas Iskarioth can't be rendered as "Judash the one who deceives/betrayes" because there is none prefix "h" that allows a reading of "šāqar" in the active sense and different from the meaning of "the one who is deceived/betrayed", with the comical result that legitimacy is given to the interpretation of Iskarioth as the victim (sic) and not the author of the betrayal.

Hence the my point is that the context dictates the choice of the active sense over the passive sense, or viceversa. The immediate context decides that the "deliverance" read in Pilate must be interpreted in the active sense as "the one who releases", contra the opposed reading of "deliverance" in Pilate as "the one who is released by God".

Thoughts?
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Giuseppe
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Re: Basic reason why the name of Pilate was absent in the Earliest Passion Story extrapolated from Mark

Post by Giuseppe »

DrSarah wrote: Thu Feb 29, 2024 12:22 am
Giuseppe wrote: Wed Feb 28, 2024 12:30 pm
Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote: Wed Feb 28, 2024 12:11 pm
Why would an ancient religious writer have transformed a myth into such a sober, brief, and seemingly historical account?
because the first need of the propaganda among gentile masses required that the original myth was understood in clear sober, brief and seemingly historical terms.
Why?

It's not like those 'gentile masses' didn't understand the concept of divine beings living in other realms; that was a fairly widespread belief. Why would that be regarded as such a complicated concept that Jesus's death had to be portrayed as having happened on earth?

And since when did spelling out myths in 'sober, brief and seemingly historical terms' make them more palatable? Myths get told as stories and embroidered for people to enjoy and appreciate. That's the normal way of passing them on, not a dry 'just the facts, ma'am' approach.
For two reasons the "dry 'just the facts, ma'am' approach" was necessary, a day:
  • 1) The Romans were pragmatic people and if you want to address them, then a such kind of approach was someway necessary.
  • 2) after the 70 and until to 135 there was a recrudescence of militant messianism in Judea and in the Diaspora: in the same period, the early anti-demiurgist communities started to proclaim that Jesus was the Son of an unknown Father who was not YHWH. If Jesus was not the son of YHWH, then Jesus was not the Messiah of YHWH, therefore he couldn't compete with the messianic claims made by real messianists in Judea. As reaction, the dry 'just the facts, ma'am' approach becomes necessary in order to explain in clear terms that Jesus was the Messiah of YHWH even if he was crucified, indeed, just because he was crucified! So in the same time "evidence" is given to prove that Jesus adored YHWH as supreme god and was his messiah and not the envoy of an alien god.
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Re: Basic reason why the name of Pilate was absent in the Earliest Passion Story extrapolated from Mark

Post by Kunigunde Kreuzerin »

Giuseppe wrote: Thu Feb 29, 2024 1:47 am
DrSarah wrote: Thu Feb 29, 2024 12:22 am
Giuseppe wrote: Wed Feb 28, 2024 12:30 pm
Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote: Wed Feb 28, 2024 12:11 pm
Why would an ancient religious writer have transformed a myth into such a sober, brief, and seemingly historical account?
because the first need of the propaganda among gentile masses required that the original myth was understood in clear sober, brief and seemingly historical terms.
Why?

It's not like those 'gentile masses' didn't understand the concept of divine beings living in other realms; that was a fairly widespread belief. Why would that be regarded as such a complicated concept that Jesus's death had to be portrayed as having happened on earth?

And since when did spelling out myths in 'sober, brief and seemingly historical terms' make them more palatable? Myths get told as stories and embroidered for people to enjoy and appreciate. That's the normal way of passing them on, not a dry 'just the facts, ma'am' approach.
For two reasons the "dry 'just the facts, ma'am' approach" was necessary, a day:
  • 1) The Romans were pragmatic people and if you want to address them, then a such kind of approach was someway necessary.
  • 2) after the 70 and until to 135 there was a recrudescence of militant messianism in Judea and in the Diaspora: in the same period, the early anti-demiurgist communities started to proclaim that Jesus was the Son of an unknown Father who was not YHWH. If Jesus was not the son of YHWH, then Jesus was not the Messiah of YHWH, therefore he couldn't compete with the messianic claims made by real messianists in Judea. As reaction, the dry 'just the facts, ma'am' approach becomes necessary in order to explain in clear terms that Jesus was the Messiah of YHWH even if he was crucified, indeed, just because he was crucified! So in the same time "evidence" is given to prove that Jesus adored YHWH as supreme god and was his messiah and not the envoy of an alien god.
But then it would above all be necessary to give names and dates. The name of the responsible Roman prefect and his reasons would be an absolute must in this account. Definitely not some anonymous governor.
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Re: Basic reason why the name of Pilate was absent in the Earliest Passion Story extrapolated from Mark

Post by maryhelena »

I really don't get what Giuseppe is trying to pull out of the Barabbas and Pilate story.

The crucifixion accounts are riddled with all kinds of incongruities, to the extent that some of them were already remarked upon in the work of several ancient authors. .........although seeming to be straightforward historical narrative, are unveiled by a closer scrutiny to be contrived.

Bermejo-Rubio, Fernando. They Suffered under Pontius Pilate: Jewish Anti-Roman Resistance and the Crosses at Golgotha (p. 49). Lexington Books. Kindle Edition.

Pilate released Barabbas and hands Jesus over to be crucified. The 'good' man - Pilate finds no fault in him - and the 'bad man', Barabbas let go free.

This story, as Bermejo-Rubio says is 'riddled with all kinds of incongruities'.

One can go back and forth debating the Greek words used in the gospel text - but these words won't give a historically based explanation of the story.

At the same time, however, they incite the crowd to ask Pilate for the release of a certain Barabbas, who is unambiguously depicted as a man convicted of sedition. Mark 15:7 affirms that he “was in prison with the rebels who had committed murder during the insurrection,” thereby linking Barabbas with people convicted of bloodshed. The Fourth Gospel is likewise explicit, describing him as a lēstēs (a “brigand,” with the meaning of “insurgent”).31 Irrespective of whether the evangelists realized the contradiction embedded in the scene they have depicted, its problematic character is too obvious for any attentive reader.

Bermejo-Rubio, Fernando. They Suffered under Pontius Pilate: Jewish Anti-Roman Resistance and the Crosses at Golgotha (pp. 44-45). Lexington Books. Kindle Edition.

Viewing the account not as history but as a historical reflection, or remembrance, the releasing of Barabbas, the letting go of a seditionist, would indicate that the sedition was not fully put down during the time of Pilate. As Bermejo-Rubio wrote:

At the same time, however, we can be confident that the contention that “Under Tiberius all was quiet” should be carefully nuanced. In the phrase “relative peacefulness” the adjective has a specific weight. Given the scarce extant evidence we cannot be sure of the kind of resistance carried out in these episodes and whether their main characters were hardline anti-imperialists or not, but the simplest explanation for the abovementioned scraps of evidence is that an ideology of active resistance was already at work within the prefects’ period.

Bermejo-Rubio, Fernando. They Suffered under Pontius Pilate: Jewish Anti-Roman Resistance and the Crosses at Golgotha (p. 124). Lexington Books. Kindle Edition.

The historical events of 37 b.c. indicate that the seditious ideology did not end with the Roman execution of Antigonus. Herod going on to kill 64 of his party. And, of course, the seditious ideology continued up to 70 c.e. and beyond.

If as I maintain, the gospel account is a a reflection of a historical event but is not itself a historical event - then Pilate seeking to wash his hands of Jesus would indicate that Rome was not responsible for the execution, crucifixion, of a 'king of the Jews' during the time of Tiberius and Pilate.

As for an assumed play on the name *Pilate* by the gospel writers - for what purpose? Pilate, re Philo, was a governor of Judaea in the time of Tiberius.

Pilate was one of the emperor's lieutenants, having been appointed governor of Judaea. He, not more with the object of doing honour to Tiberius than with that of vexing the multitude, dedicated some gilt shields in the palace of Herod,........And those who were in power in our nation, seeing this, and perceiving that he was inclined to change his mind as to what he had done, but that he was not willing to be thought to do so, wrote a most supplicatory letter to Tiberius. (304) And he, when he had read it, what did he say of Pilate, and what threats did he utter against him!

https://www.earlyjewishwritings.com/tex ... ook40.html

Attempting to remove the name of Pilate from the gospel passion story for an unnamed governor of Judaea ? Whatever the timeframe of Pilate during the time of Tiberius (consensus late Daniel Schwartz early) the gospel writers placed him in the time of Tiberius. Did Pilate go under a different name or did he even exist ?(it seems, apart from the Pilate stone, there is no official Roman document detailing his time in Judaea) If one wanted to go that route - then it's both Philo and Josephus one must tackle. As it is, Pilate is in the gospel storyline - hense it's that storyline, in and off itself, that needs examination - not just any Greek words used in connection to Pilate.

Anyway, I'm waiting for someone to set out in simple terms the argument about Pilate that is being attempted in this thread.

Giuseppe - the gospel story is a crucified Jesus on terra-firma in the time of Pilate and Tiberius. If one has opted for this story not being historical - that it's Jesus figure is not a historical figure - there are basically two choices for the road forward. Run with wild imagination towards a celestial, outerspace, crucifixion - or read a history book on Jewish/Hasmonean history. One road has prospects that can help in understanding the gospel story - the other road is a dead-end, a cul de sac.
Last edited by maryhelena on Thu Feb 29, 2024 8:51 am, edited 1 time in total.
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Giuseppe
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Re: Basic reason why the name of Pilate was absent in the Earliest Passion Story extrapolated from Mark

Post by Giuseppe »

Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote: Thu Feb 29, 2024 2:00 am The name of the responsible Roman prefect and his reasons would be an absolute must in this account. Definitely not some anonymous governor.
giving a name already in the first narrative is equivalent to deceive (while it is equivalent, if I am right about the irony on PLT, to embellish).
Giving an anonymous governor in the first narrative reflects merely the effort of translation from the original myth: a translation that by need doesn't mean nothing because it has emptied the meaning of the myth.

Just as Acts has emptied by need the dense symbolism of a previous gospel.
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Re: Basic reason why the name of Pilate was absent in the Earliest Passion Story extrapolated from Mark

Post by davidmartin »

holy shit Giuseppe thanks for this tip
But you and Secret Alias are claiming that Judas Iskarioth can't be rendered as "Judash the one who deceives/betrayes" because there is none prefix "h" that allows a reading of "šāqar" in the active sense and different from the meaning of "the one who is deceived/betrayed", with the comical result that legitimacy is given to the interpretation of Iskarioth as the victim (sic) and not the author of the betrayal.
I did a Syriac search on SHKR and it's also a Hebrew word
'škrwtˀ - SHKROTA (something like ESHKAROTA) drunkenness from SHKR meaning the same plus 'defame'.
Judas the drunken. Now you may giggle but spiritual drunkenness comes up in the odes. In John Judas goes awol after eating the bread Jesus gives him that seems to have an intoxicating effect. That only makes him look a victim if taken literally otherwise it could mean almost anything, like does 'Judas' stand for other sectarians that 'went out from us but were not of us' cause I don't take this literally, Judas stands for something
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Joseph D. L.
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Re: Basic reason why the name of Pilate was absent in the Earliest Passion Story extrapolated from Mark

Post by Joseph D. L. »

Giuseppe wrote: Wed Feb 28, 2024 10:58 pm
Joseph D. L. wrote: Wed Feb 28, 2024 1:39 pmnot the fluency reacquired for this feat.
do you think that the fluency was not required in the case of the realization of the meaning of "Barabbas" as "Son of Father", while it was required to compare the Latin name "Pilate" to the personal Semitic name "Pelet" (meaning: "releaser")?

Or do you think that the same degree of fluency was required to decipher both "Barabbas" and "Pilate"?
I think this is a different matter altogether. See here, you are applying one hermeneutic interpretation onto another, when both are operating at different literary inputs and outcomes. "Barabbas" as "bar Abba" would, I think, be generic enough to warrant such a broader interpretation, especially when you consider that the name Jesus was at one time appended before it. The Pilate/plt interpretation is, in my opinion, running at such high performance level that it smacks of coincidence at best. Grammatically and linguistically I don't think this is possible with the demand you are imposing, and the interplay of a Latin name being written out in Greek which is used as a pun by a Semitic root word. All of that just seems anachronistic to me.

Question, is your theory about Barabbas possible even without the Pilate/plt layer?

Another question, (and this is also for SA too), taking SA's criticism into account: could you accept that the the Pilate/plt is the result of the interpolator's misunderstanding of Hebrew, in that I mean the intent was still there even though the author would have been grammatically misappropriating the Hebrew to do so?
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Joseph D. L.
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Re: Basic reason why the name of Pilate was absent in the Earliest Passion Story extrapolated from Mark

Post by Joseph D. L. »

davidmartin wrote: Thu Feb 29, 2024 3:28 am holy shit Giuseppe thanks for this tip

I did a Syriac search on SHKR and it's also a Hebrew word
'škrwtˀ - SHKROTA (something like ESHKAROTA) drunkenness from SHKR meaning the same plus 'defame'.
Judas the drunken. Now you may giggle but spiritual drunkenness comes up in the odes. In John Judas goes awol after eating the bread Jesus gives him that seems to have an intoxicating effect. That only makes him look a victim if taken literally otherwise it could mean almost anything, like does 'Judas' stand for other sectarians that 'went out from us but were not of us' cause I don't take this literally, Judas stands for something
Reminds me of the wedding at Cana and Jesus refilling the water jugs with wine for the guests. A Bacchic influence perhaps? Judas partakes in the Bacchic sacrament and, drunk on the ecstasy of the Holy spirit, drives him to betray Jesus?
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