Paul in the flesh, 2: Paul circumcised Titus (The living text, Latin West, Gal 2:5)

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gryan
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Paul in the flesh, 2: Paul circumcised Titus (The living text, Latin West, Gal 2:5)

Post by gryan »

Thesis: "οἷς οὐδὲ" in Galatians 2:5 was an interpolation. The living tradition of the Latin West was accurate, and Victorinus's argument is on point.

Paul circumcised Titus. The hand that wrote, "see what large letters" (Gal 6:11), was the same hand that circumcised Titus ( according to Gal 2:5 minus οἷς οὐδὲ). Just as, according to Acts 16, Paul circumcised Timothy.

My rationale for embracing the interpolation hypothesis is the enhanced internal coherence of the text in Galatians when it is integrated with the "when he came" version of Galatians 2:12 (from Carlson's critical text).

Here is the progression of thought:

"(in Jerusalem) for a brief period, we (Barnabas and I, alongside the pillars) submitted ourselves (as seen in the circumcision of Titus) so that the truth of the gospel could persist among you... but when he (Cephas/Peter) arrived (in Antioch), he continued to distance himself and separate from table fellowship with Gentiles... and Barnabas joined in this pretense."

Within this textual combination, a coherent scenario emerges: Cephas began adhering to the circumcision party's demands in Jerusalem and carried on in Antioch. In Jerusalem, like Cephas, Paul had yielded "for an hour" (acting as a Jew, under the law, to connect with those under the law); however, in Antioch, Paul resumed living openly as a Gentile. In Antioch, like Paul, Barnabas resumed the path of living like a gentile; however, when Cephas arrived, he joined Cephas in the play-acting.

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Admittedly, only one currently existing Greek manuscript lacks the interpolation, οἷς οὐδὲ—Codex Claromontanus, symbolized by D-Paul or D*, indicating the form of the text before the hand of the corrector made an interpolation. οἷς οὐδὲ appears on the left margin of D-Paul.

διὰ δὲ τοὺς παρεισάκτους ψευδαδέλφους... οἷς
οὐδὲ
πρὸς ὥραν εἴξαμεν τῇ ὑποταγῇ, ἵνα ἡ
ἀλήθεια τοῦ εὐαγγελίου διαμείνῃ πρὸς
ὑμᾶς.

Nevertheless, the Latin West preserved the non-interpolation in the early form of the Vulgate (lacking "Quibus neque") through the time of Tertullian (against Marcion) and on to Victorinus (writing a commentary on Galatians circa 360). Here is the Latin text used by Victorinus:

sed propter subintroductos falsos fratres... Quibus neque ad horam cessimus subjectione, ut veritas Evangelii permaneat apud vos

Translation of the Greek and Latin, without interpolation:

But because of the false brothers... we yielded in subjection for an hour, so that the truth of the gospel might continue toward you.

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Victorinus (Tr. Cooper, 2005) was aware of the interpolation and presented arguments against it using text-critical logic. I find each of his points persuasive. Here is what Victorinus wrote:

"Some read the last phrase as follows: not even for an hour did we submit in subjection. The sense fits with the previous verse: "that not even Titus, a Greek, was forced to be circumcised; nor indeed did we submit in subjection, even for an hour--that is, as we were accustomed to submit in some matters.

Still: seeing that in quite a few codices, both Latin and Greek, the verse runs for an hour we submitted in subjection (meaning that we did things their way although we had no intention of always following that path), one can in many ways prove that it ought to be read this: for an hour we submitted in subjection.

First: because Paul really did submit: for in fact he also circumcised Timothy on account of the Jews, and it says in the acts of the apostles. So the apostle was under no pressure to lie.

Second: If there had been any need to deny the deed absolutely, who would say, "not even for an hour"? And surely, if he opposed Peter, what would the meaning here be of "not even for an hour did we submit"?

Likewise: If it was said above that not even Titus, a Greek who was with me, was forced to be circumcised, Paul did not submit in all matters, nor always or even very much.

In the end: he did so on account of the stealthily introduced brothers, who were combining Judaism and Christianity. Hence it said "on account of the Jews" (Acts 16:3, "Paul circumcised Timothy on account of the Jews in the area").

Anyway: I've always made his policy clear: on some occasions Paul submitted, even when it came to matters of the truth, for this is the meaning of his saying "as a Jew that I might win over the Jews" (1 Cor 9:20), and so on.

At this time: therefore, we submitted on account of the stealthily introduced false brothers (since there are many pseudo-apostles whom he calls false-brothers): certain men began to come around and to sneak in by their persuasions, and so to spy on the freedom of the apostles' speech--that is, they were wanting to get in among us. Can they be true apostles who belong only to Christ? Or were they making an attack on the freedom which we have in Christ? Therefore, because we saw their plan to lead us over into servitude, for an hour we did indeed submit in subjection, meaning that for a brief period we performed some actions...

Consequently: Paul included "we submitted in subjection, but only "for an hour that the truth of the gospel might remain with you", with you who were instructed by us, you Galatians...

"But by the agency of those recognized to be somebody--what sort they every may have been makes no difference to me..." (Gal 2:6) The words by the agency were set down in the following manner: as if the Galatians would be something through the doings of those who seemed to be something..."
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