Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com

Earl Doherty's Hebrew 8:4 challenge http://frdb.talkfreethought.org/thearchives/showthread.php?t=322015 These kinds of links are inaccessible to most mortals. Finding the thread on the http://bcharchive.org website is recommended: "Earl Doherty's Hebrew 8:4 challenge" http://bcharchive.or...

In this case, however, I think the point is probably moot. Why not take it in its most common use, which is to coordinate with δέ (even when it stands with οὖν it can set up a subsequent δέ )? Interesting. Good point. I didn't see that later δέ . Exactly so. The particle ἂν typically stands in the ...

Could it be for its numerological value? I remember Irenaeus mentioning this somewhere. If so, then we're looking for the origin of the name of " IHSOUS XREISTOS " among Greek speakers with a penchant for numerology. But that's the easiest answer there is. Both Irenaeus and Hippolytus say...

MrMacSon wrote:

Peter Kirby wrote:The do seem to fit for the second century in general, although we should perhaps also mention Huller's mediating position that 3 may be authentic...

'3' as in a category above, or 3rd century?

Three letters. Three letters of Ignatius. The shorter shorter Ignatius. The Syriac Ignatius.

Another key figure is Ignatius though his 7 epistles written in Asia minor (west Anatolia) ~ 107-8 AD/CE while on his way to alleged martyrdom in Rome (it seems weird a prisoner was allowed a tour de force) Andrew Criddle once mentioned that he could be dated later, even if his letters were authent...

What I find more interesting than the A-1 conundrum is that nobody has yet really tried to tear apart B through D (aside from the absolute chronology).

Does it represent a limited consensus of the members of the forum?

The only exception seems to be the Valentinians who preserved Jesus's name in Greek rather the correct yeshu according to Irenaeus. It is very important to distinguish between the language of texts used and that of the mystical / divine names used. Because Hebrew was a magical language and/or the l...

So to summarize this rather speculative investigation, I think Chrestos was a Greek translation of an underlying Aramaic terminology which in turn translated the Hebrew terminology for 'Apostle.' According to this premise by the time the Greek translation was made the concept of the sheliach became...

I also have grave doubt about the supposed A-1 group. If it didn't exist, then it simply becomes the novelty of the Gospel writers et al. in adapting their story to some particular, fictitious circumstances. (Note that the A-1 group may or may not be associated with a HJ, which is itself an even mor...

I've split off my tangent here (this is Stephan's thread after all) about a history of Christian origins that could account for what Secret Alias notes.

http://www.earlywritings.com/forum/view ... f=3&t=1644