Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com

Much scholarly endeavor has been spent asserting that Mark's or Matthew's Aramaic usage betrays their respective primitivity. Which is true? Mark's direct Aramaic quotations are almost always accompanied with a translation, indicating that he does not expect his readership to understand the Aramaic...

My first post, hi all, hope i'm getting the quote syntax right. It is my understanding that Mk 13 can be used to assert that Mark was most likely written after 41 CE and before about 75 CE. The 41 CE date comes from Mark using a document written about the time that the Emperor Gaius Caligula wanted...

“sons bridegroom” (filii sponsi) instead of “sons bridechamber” Yes, and that is because the English translation I used and the Greek text I used differ on that point. I made no attempt to retranslate everything. The English is there for the general idea only; the Greek is what needs to accurately ...

I disagree. It is quite legitimate to state which parts of someone else’s case you find unconvincing. This does not oblige me to state an alternative case to try to convince them their case is wrong. I might be happy just to disagree. It might be that there are no convincing alternative cases. Howev...

But you have the burden of proof here, since it is your alleged evidence. I don’t understand how the burden of proof moved to me. I had been asking for the case for “brothers of the Lord” = “Christian brothers”. You provided one and I commented that I didn’t find it convincing with the reasons. I d...

the authors of the Talmud are rabbis derived by the Pharisees, considered enemies of the Zealots and collaborators with the Romans. If Jesus existed, a Talmudist rabbi friend of the Romans would never have said that Jesus was not killed by the Romans. I don’t understand what evidence you have for t...

As I said you have not convinced me that having “you” then "so also you" is wrong. (I wonder if it is an Aramaicism?) Even with the emphatic " you " in the Greek? Why is that emphatic "you" there if the previous subject was also "you"? The more I think about ...

The most likely scenario IMO is that the original text had עֶ֣רֶשׂ = bed and everyone translated as best he could. Aquila in Psalm 41:3 translates עֶ֣רֶשׂ with grabatum https://books.google.com/books?id=JNNDAQAAMAAJ&pg=PA113&lpg=PA113&dq=%22Aquila%22+grabatum&source=bl&ots=EEIEc...

You are right about Celsus. I recognize my errors in the rapid conclusions above. But the problem with Celsus is that he is only listing the possible various reasons to disparage the Gospel Jesus, as a modern atheist, as Carrier when he says he is not Christian because, even if Jesus existed, he wa...

Thank you Peter. If the wording was the same as Philippians 1:14 "Brothers in the Lord" (ton adelphon en kurio) I might concede the point. Also the Greek might mean that the brothers are not “in Lord”, and it appears odd for them as “having confidence to the bonds of Paul” it seems to make...